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Mekhanik [1.2K]
2 years ago
7

The study of the characteristics of human populations such as size, density, age, race, gender, and income is known as.

Business
1 answer:
algol [13]2 years ago
6 0

The study of the characteristics of human populations such as size, density, age, race, gender, and income is known as Standard of living.

<h3>What is standard of living?</h3>

Standard of living refers toincome, comfort, out put or goods, population, gender, race and necessities of certain classes in some areas or characteristics of quality of life in a place.

The standard of living is measured by Gross domestic product per capital. That is GDP divided by population.

Gross domestic product(GDP) is the total number of goods produced in a nation per year.

Therefore, The study of the characteristics of human populations such as size, density, age, race, gender, and income is known as Standard of living.

For more details on standard of living check the link below.

https://brainly.com/question/930000.

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A father wants to save for his eight?year?old son�s college expenses. The son will enter college 10 years from now. An annual am
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The son will enter college 10 years from now. An annual amount of $40,000 in constant dollars will be required to support the son's college expenses for four years.

The future general inflation rate is estimated to be 6% per year, and the market interest rate on the savings account will average 8% compounded annually

A) We need to find the present value for each 40,000-year expense.

Formula= FV/(1+i)^n

1: PV= 40,000/(1.06)^10= 22,335.80

2: PV= 40,000/(1.06)^11= 21,071.50

3: PV= 19,878.77

4: PV= 18,753.56

B) Total final value= 160,000

PV= 160,000/1.06^10= $89,343.16

C) We need to use the following formula:

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual deposit

Isolating A:

A= (FV*i)/{[(1+i)^n]-1}

A= (160,000*0.06)/[(1.06^10)-1]= $12,138

5 0
3 years ago
Haven Company uses the percentage of receivables method for recording bad debt expense. The accounts receivable balance is $600,
Katena32 [7]

Answer:

Debit Bad debt expense   $19,000

Credit Allowance for doubtful debt   $19,000

Explanation:

When a company makes sales on account, debit accounts receivable and credit sales. Based on assessment, some or all of the receivables may be uncollectible.  

To account for this, debit bad debit expense and credit allowance for doubtful debt. Should the debt become uncollectible (i.e go bad), debit allowance for doubtful debt and credit accounts receivable.

Where a debit that had previously been determined to have gone bad gets settled, debit cash and credit bad debt expense.

Amount that may be uncollectible

= 4% *  $600,000

= $24,000

Given that the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a $5,000 credit balance before adjustment, the additional amount to be adjusted for

= $24,000 - $5,000

= $19,000

7 0
2 years ago
Which method is the most efficient method to use to solve x^2+6x-7=0?
sweet-ann [11.9K]
(x+7)(x-1) = 0 ^x^2 + 6x - 7 = 0x               7x              -1
Its really easy if you think it this way.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How did IT help the company solve that problem?
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

IT helps society and determines how people interact with each other on a daily basisIt enables you to identify problems quicker and easier and helps you better analyze a complex problem. Technology students are especially encouraged to be innovative and to want to improve a current situation by encountering and solving problems, in an advanced way.

Explanation:

IT means Information Technology

#HOPE IT HELPED#

8 0
2 years ago
Consider a portfolio consisting of only Duke Energy and Microsoft. The percentage of your investment (portfolio weight) that you
Leokris [45]

Answer:

(2) 4%

Explanation:

The portfolio is considered to be less risky if its volatility is low. The higher standard deviation the more risky is the project. For Duke Energy and Microsoft the investment portfolio required is risk free investment. To calculate the risk free rate we calculate using the formula;

Var Rp = x1 2Var R1 + x2 2Var R2 +2 x1 x2 Corr (R1, R2) SD1 SD2

Var Rp = 0.14 + 0.44 + 2 (1) * (-1) * 6% * 24%

Solving for this we get the risk free investment at 4%.

3 0
3 years ago
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