Answer:
-3/5
Step-by-step explanation:
2/3 *-9/8*-4/5*-1= -3/5
Answer:
88
Step-by-step explanation:
Find the prime factorization of both 8 and 11.
8 → 4 × 2 → 2 × 2 × 2
11 → 11
Then, multiply each factor the greater number of times it occurs. Since no factors are duplicated between 8 and 11 (as in, 2 is not a factor of 11, nor is 11 a factor of 8), LCM will equal 2 × 2 × 2 × 11.
2 × 2 × 2 × 11 = 88, so the LCM is 88.
It's a little hard to explain without visuals. A video could be useful, though I can't put links here.
The answer is 95.4525 percent because you would use an equation
n!/(r!(n-r)! x (P)^x * (1-P)^(n-x)
Plug in the number correspondingly
N= 10
R= 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 (You will have to do each individual, if you have a Ti-nspire calculator however there is a built program called binomialcdf.
P= .37
x = r
After plugging this is the achieved answer is 95.4525
(.0578 + .1529 + .2394 + .2461 + .1734 + .0849) x 100
additive may be a little off due to rounding.
Here are the scores of students on a history test. 57,58,61,61,65,71,73,75,77,78,80,82,92 Notice that the scores are ordered fro
trasher [3.6K]
I hope this helps the five numbers on the bottom 71 7374 7577 is the interquartile range
Answer:
10 times greater
Step-by-step explanation:
Because value of 5 in 503 is 5*100
Then the value of 5 in 53 is 5*10
So then value of 5 in 503 is 10 times greater than the value of 5 in 53
I hope this helps
