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slamgirl [31]
3 years ago
12

Can someone answer this question please answer it correctly if it’s corect I will mark you brainliest

Mathematics
2 answers:
Licemer1 [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$43.95

Step-by-step explanation:

15/100 × 293

= 43.95

miv72 [106K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

43.95

Step-by-step explanation:

293 x 15 percent

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I need help asap D:
Airida [17]

Answer:

F

Step-by-step explanation:

decimals are percentages and then fraction can be reduced into percentages so I did the math on all of them and f is the highest score

4 0
3 years ago
Each day, Robin commutes to work by bike with probability 0.4 and by walking with probability 0.6. When biking to work injuries
kvasek [131]

Answer:

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}


In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given interval.

Each day:

Bikes to work with probability 0.4.

If he bikes to work, 0.1 injuries per year.

Walks to work with probability 0.6.

If he walks to work, 0.02 injuries per year.

20 years.

So

\mu = 20*(0.4*0.1 + 0.6*0.02) = 1.04

Either he suffers no injuries, or he suffer at least one injury. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1). Then

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}


P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.04}*1.04^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.3535


P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.3535 = 0.6465

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

3 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me answer this question ? thanks <3
Tanya [424]

Answer:

lll

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
HELP ME PLS!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
kykrilka [37]

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

Square = 2 x 2 = 4

The Small triangle is half of the square so 4 divided by 2 is 2.

The big triangle 4 x 2 = 8 divided by 2 is 4.

So,

4 + 2 + 4 = 10

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Tonya and Pearl each completed a separate proof to show that the alternate interior angles AKL and FLK are congruent. Who comple
Keith_Richards [23]

Answer: Pearl

Step-by-step explanation:

In step 2, she justified her step by the definition of vertical angles. However, angles AKL and GKB do not share a common side, meaning they are not adjacent angles.

4 0
2 years ago
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