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Fiesta28 [93]
2 years ago
9

What is the length of the missing leg? If necessary, round to the nearest tenth.

Mathematics
2 answers:
kap26 [50]2 years ago
5 0

Applying Pythagorean theorem

\\ \sf\longmapsto a^2=13^2-12^2

\\ \sf\longmapsto a^2=169-144

\\ \sf\longmapsto a^2=25

\\ \sf\longmapsto a=\sqrt{25}

\\ \sf\longmapsto a=5cm

zhannawk [14.2K]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

5cm

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the missing side we use the hypotenuse theorem.

a^2 + b^2 = c^2

The longest side of the triangle would be c. So substitute the numbers into the variables.

a^2 + 12^2 = 13^2

a^2 = 13^2 - 12^2

a^2 = 169 - 144

a^2= 25

a = √25

a=5

The missing leg's length is 5cm

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A force of 60 N is used to stretch two springs that are initially the same length. Spring A has a spring constant of 4 N/m, and
goblinko [34]

Answer:

D:Spring A is 3 m longer than spring B because 15 – 12 = 3.

Step-by-step explanation:

In this question, you should remember the Hooke's Law in physics.

The Hooke's Law simply explains that the extension that occurs on a spring is directly proportional to the load applied on it.

The mathematical expression for this law is

F=-kx

where;

F= force applied on the spring

x = the extension on the spring

k= the spring constant which varies in spring.

The question will need you to calculate the extension on the springs A and B then compare the values obtained.

<u>In spring A</u>

Force, F=60N and spring constant ,k=4 N/m

To find the extension x apply the expression;

F=-kx\\\\60=-4*x\\\\60=-4x\\\\\frac{60}{-4} =\frac{-4x}{-4} \\\\\\-15=x

Here the spring extension is 15 m

<u>In spring B</u>

Force, F=60N and spring constant , k=5N/m

To find the extension x apply the same expression

F=-kx\\\\60=-5*x\\\\60=-5x\\\\\\\frac{60}{-5} =\frac{-5x}{-5} \\\\\\-12=x

Here the extension on the spring is 12 m

<u>Compare</u>

The extension on spring A is 3 m longer than that in spring B because when you subtract the value of spring B from that in spring A you get 3m

=15m-12m=3m

5 0
3 years ago
What is 1,000,000 written as a power of ten?
DIA [1.3K]
1,000,000 is written as 10^6. Other wise it would be too low or too high.
6 0
3 years ago
And here is the other one.
LUCKY_DIMON [66]
Since BD bisects angle ABC, that means angle ABD and angle CBD are equal to each other. With that set up the equation to solve for x like this:

-4x+33 = 2x+81
-2x -2x
————————
-6x +33 = 81
-33 -33
————————
-6x = 48
————- (divide by -6)
-6

x = -8


Now substitute that to ABD
-4(-8) +33
32 +33
=65

here’s CBD
2(-8) + 81
-16 + 81
=65

Finally angle ABC will be double the amount of ABD or CBD so 65 times 2 is 130.

ANSWERS: (angles)
ABD and CBD: 65
ABC: 130

3 0
3 years ago
Find all solutions in the interval [0, 2π).
jekas [21]
First you must know that for remarkable angles: cos (0) = 1, cos (π) = - 1, cos (π / 2) = 0, cos (3π / 2) = 0, cos (2π) = 1. Then, by simple substitution in the given formula, you can find the solutions of x. Which for the interval [0, 2π) are: x = π, x = pi divided by two and x = three pi divided by two.Attached solution.

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3 years ago
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If there were 30 Girls, 4 Girls played for each part.
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