Answer: Option D
Explanation: In simple words, direct finance refers to the situation when the borrowers borrows money directly from lenders, and do not consider taking help from any intermediary. In other words, when the issuers in the financial market sell their securities directly to the general investors then such financing is termed as direct financing.
This financing is cheaper and benefits both he lender and the borrower. Hence we can conclude that the correct option is D.
Accurate measurement is VERY important in banking because banking is all about exact calculations. If one balance measure is off, the entire bank report will not be acurate. One little mess up and the entire calculation goes wrong.
Answer:
yield to maturity = 7.06%
Explanation:
yield to maturity (YTM) is calculated using the following formula:
YTM = {C + [(FV - PV) / n]} / [(FV + PV) / 2]
- FV = $2,000
- PV = $1,902.14
- C = $2,000 x 6.48% x 1/2 = $64.80
- n = 12 x 2 = 24
YTM = {64.80 + [(2,000 - 1,902.14) / 24]} / [(2,000 + 1,902.14) / 2] = (64.80 + 4.0775) / 1,951.07 = 0.0353 or 3.53% semianually or 7.06% annually
Since the bond sells at a discount, its yield to maturity will be higher than the coupon rate.
Answer:
SCC won't pay any tax
Explanation:
Their loss of $30,000 in year 1 will be unused and made available to counterbalance the total generated earnings in year 2.
The $20,000 earnings in year 2 can be used to counterbalance the whole taxable income; so, SCC will not pay pay tax. SCC will have a ($10,000) loss carryover available for year 3 and beyond
