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natta225 [31]
3 years ago
9

Find an equation of the line through (3,6) and parallel to y = 4x - 7.

Mathematics
2 answers:
enyata [817]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

y = 4 x - 6

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to know that,

If two lines are parallel the slopes of the two lines are equal but not the y - intercept.

In the equation,

y = m x + c

m ⇒ slope

c ⇒ y - intercept.

According to the question,

the equation they have given is,

y = 4x - 7

We have already find the slope of the new line.

That is,

m = slope = 4 (because the 2 lines are parallel)

Now we have to find y - intercept.

Let us find now.

( 3 , 6 ) ⇔ ( x , y )

y = m x + c

6 = 4 × 3 + c

6 = 12 + c

6 - 12 = c

-6 = c

There fore, the equation of the new line is,

y = m x + c

y = 4 x - 6

Hope this helps you :-)

Let me know if you have any other questions :-)

FromTheMoon [43]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

y=4x-6

Step-by-step explanation:

Okay, to do this we must understand what parallel means.

parallel means that that one line will NEVER touch the other. In order for this to happen they must be increasing (or decreasing) by the SAME rate. I.e the slope of your line must be the same as the lin in question thus our equation looks like,

y=4x+c.

Now lets find c.

To do this, plug the point (3,6) into the equation

6=4(3)+C

6=12+C

-6=C

Thus now that we know C, our equaiton is

y=4x-6

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Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has
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Answer:

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

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