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mezya [45]
3 years ago
15

How does the opportunity cost principle explain the relationship between the real interest rate and investment spending?

Business
1 answer:
Free_Kalibri [48]3 years ago
4 0

The opportunity cost illustrates the relationship that exists between them because as the interest rate rises, the more attractive it is to leave money in the bank instead of spending on investments.

The investment line is downward sloping because of the relationship between real interest rates and investment spending.

Opportunity cost simply means what one foregoes in order to get something else. It should be noted that when there's an increase in the interest rate, this will lead, the cost of borrowing will be high. Therefore, there'll be a reduction in investment.

Therefore, there's a negative relationship between interest rate and investment spending. This then leads to a downward-sloping curve.

Learn more about the interest rate on:

brainly.com/question/11840728

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A state provides a city with a grant of $500,000 for a special "meals for the homeless" program. The city will receive payment f
alina1380 [7]

Answer:

When it incurs expenditures under the grant

Explanation:

According to the revenue recognition principle, the revenue is recognized when it is earned plus in this question the matching principle is also applied that refers that when revenue is recognized so at the same time the expenditure should also be recorded i.e on same period the revenue and the expenditure should be matched.

8 0
3 years ago
Determine whether the following would be reported in the financing activities section of the statement of cash flows and, if so,
Marat540 [252]

While you buy a bond, you're loaning cash to both a government and a corporation. whilst these entities first difficulty the bonds, they're bought at "par", which means you lend, say, $a hundred, and at the adulthood of the bond, you'll acquire $100 lower back. at the time of the difficulty, the coupon charge is also set, primarily based on modern-day interest quotes and the entity's credit score. This determines the yearly or semiannual quantity you will acquire when buying the bond.

A bond can be bought on the secondary market before adulthood. however, the price of this bond will promote greater than par (i.e. a premium) if present-day interest quotes decrease than what they had been while the bond was issued and less than par if interest fees have gone up (i.e. a reduction).

An example, a bond is issued these days, maturing in 10 years with an annual coupon of five%. In 5 years, hobby fees have risen to 7%, so someone shopping for the bond with a five% coupon would demand a discount at the face price (in any other case, they could just buy the 7% bond at par).

Learn more about bond here: brainly.com/question/25965295

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7 0
2 years ago
An investment earns 10% the first year, 15% the second year and loses 12% the third year. Your total compound return over the th
Advocard [28]

Answer: 11.32%

Explanation:

Given the above variables, the total compound return can be calculated by;

= (1 + r)(1 + r₂)(1 + r₃)...(1 + rn) - 1

= (1 + 10%)( 1 + 15%) (1 - 12%) - 1

= 11.32%

7 0
3 years ago
The bookkeeper for the company has prepared the following balance sheet as at December 31, 2018: Cameron Corp Balance Sheet Dece
Vladimir79 [104]

Answer:

lolol

Explanation:

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Standard rate per direct labor-hour $ 2 Standard direct labor-hours for each unit produced 3 Units manufactured 1,000 Actual dir
Nastasia [14]

Answer:

Variable overhead efficiency variance= $600 unfavorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard rate per direct labor-hour $2

Standard direct labor-hours for each unit produced 3

Units manufactured 1,000

Actual direct labor-hours worked during the month 3,300

<u>To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>

<u></u>

Variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate

Variable overhead efficiency variance= (1,000*3 - 3,300)*2

Variable overhead efficiency variance= $600 unfavorable

5 0
3 years ago
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