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Molodets [167]
2 years ago
7

Due to mismanagement, Pakistan Steel Mills is currently over levered with a debt to capital ratio of 80% and a pre-tax cost of d

ebt of 8%. Management of Pakistan Steel Mills is considering a restructuring that will reduce the company's debt to capital ratio to 40% and its pre-tax cost of debt to 6%.
Current:
Debt/(Debt+Equity) = 80%
Cost of Debt (pre-tax) = 8%
Cost of Equity = 24.10%

Recapitalised:
Debt/(Debt+Equity) = 40%
Cost of Debt (pre-tax) = 6%
Cost of Equity = ?

If the marginal tax rate is 25%, the risk-free rate is 2.5%, and the equity risk premium is 6%, estimate the cost of capital after the restructuring.
Business
1 answer:
AlladinOne [14]2 years ago
7 0

The estimated cost of capital after the restructuring is 10.82%.

Using the MM Proposition II with taxes, we need to first calculate the Cost of unlevered equity;

Cost of unlevered equity = (Cost of levered equity+cost of debt*D/E*(1-tax rate))/(1+D/E*(1-tax rate))

Cost of unlevered equity = (24.10% + 8%*80%/20%*(1-25%)) / (1+80%/20%*(1-25%))

Cost of unlevered equity = 12.03

Cost of levered equity = Cost of unlevered equity + (Cost of unlevered equity-Cost of debt)*D/E*(1-tax rate)

Cost of levered equity = 12.03% + (12.0250%-6%)*40%/60%*(1-25%)

Cost of levered equity = 15.04%

Cost of capital (WACC) =40%*6%*(1-25%)+60%*15.0375%

Cost of capital (WACC) = 0.018 + 0.090225

Cost of capital (WACC) = 0.108225

Cost of capital (WACC) = 10.82%

In conclusion, the estimated cost of capital after the restructuring is 10.82%.

Read more about cost of capital

<em>brainly.com/question/25566972</em>

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Clem Corporation issues 1,000 shares of common stock for $25,000. Clem purchased equipment for $10,000 by borrowing from the ban
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

$35,000

Explanation:

We know that

Total assets = Total liabilities + stockholder equity

And, The common stock shares are issued for $25,000 and plus equipment is also purchased via borrowing from the bank for $10,000

So, the total assets by applying the accounting equation is

= Issuance of the common stock + Bank borrowed amount

= $25,000 + $10,000

= $35,000

3 0
3 years ago
Earnings per share equals the: A. Total number of shares of preferred stock divided by earnings. B. Total number of shares of co
Reptile [31]

In this context, None of the given options is the formula to derive the earnings per share.

The Earnings per share refers to the portion of a firm's profit allocated to each outstanding share of common stock.  

  • The formula for deriving EPS in a company with preferred & common stock is <em>[[Net income - Preferred dividends) / Average outstanding common shares}</em>

<em />

Therefore, the Option E is correct.

Read more about this here

<em>brainly.com/question/16037989</em>

6 0
2 years ago
Suppose that Jeremiah was unfairly terminated before his employment contract expired, and he had to spend $500 to find another j
ad-work [718]

Answer:

<u>Incidental</u> damages

Explanation:

In a situation where an employer doesn't fulfill a contract agreement with an employee, just like in the question above, where Jeremiah was unfairly terminated before his employment contract expired, he has the right to collect "damages" which is legal compensation for financial losses caused by the termination of his employment contract before it expired. Incidental damage is the answer because Jeremiah incurred expenses where he had to spend $500 to find another job as a result of the employer's breach of the contract.

4 0
2 years ago
Bulluck Corporation makes a product with the following standard costs: Standard Quantity or Hours Standard Price or Rate Direct
Sauron [17]

Answer:

Variable overhead efficiency variance= $558 favorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Variable overhead 0.60 hours $ 3.10 per hour

Actual output 4,100 units

Actual direct labor-hours 2,280 hours

<u>To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate

Variable overhead efficiency variance= (0.6*4,100 - 2,280)*3.10

Variable overhead efficiency variance= $558 favorable

8 0
3 years ago
A company that produces pleasure boats has decided to expand one of its lines. Current facilities are insufficient to handle the
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

A. Lowest Total Cost:

A. 315,550 or more

B. Lowest total cost of annual volume of 120 boats

C. C

Explanation:

The lowest total cost among the three alternatives is b.

If the company goes for new location it will have to incur fixed cost of $270,000 and variable cost per boat will be $600.

If the company Subcontracts then Total cost per boat is $2,620

If a company goes for expanding existing facility then it will incur fixed cost of $57,000 and variable cost will be $1,030 per boat.

If company produces 315,000 or more boats then it will have lowest possible cost for the boat.

For an output of 120 bots the best possible alternative is option C. The fixed cost will be $475 per boat ($57,000 / 120 boats)

The total cost will be $1,505 ($475 + $1,030)

5 0
3 years ago
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