I don knowwww the association
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
True
Step-by-step explanation:
Hi, the statement is true, because to divide a fraction we have to turn the second fraction upside down and multiply them. Since a whole number x can be written as x/1, it also applies to the case of dividing a fraction by a whole number.
We can prove it with an example.
Dividing a unit fraction by a whole number
1/2 ÷ 2 = (1x1) / (2x2) = 1/4
Multiplying the unit fractions by a unit fraction with a whole number as a denominator
1/2 x 1/2= (1x1) / (2x2) = 1/4
