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Lynna [10]
2 years ago
12

(1-sin^2x) (1+tan^2x)=1

Mathematics
2 answers:
Sphinxa [80]2 years ago
5 0

\tt (1 - sin ^2x)\times(1+tan^2x) = 1

L.H.S

\tt cos^2x \times  sec^2x

\tt cos^2x \times \frac{1}{cos^2x}

\tt \cancel{ cos^2x} \times\cancel{ \frac{1}{cos^2x}}

\tt  1

R.H.S

Hence proved

raketka [301]2 years ago
4 0

Step-by-step explanation:

{ \tt{ \blue{(1 -  { \sin}^{2}x )(1 +  { \tan }^{2}x) = 1 }}}

• Remember → 1 + tan²x = sec²x

= { \tt{ \blue{(1 -  { \sin }^{2}x)( { \sec}^{2}x)  }}}

• But sec²x → 1/cos²x

= { \tt{ \blue{(1 -  { \sin}^{2} x)( \frac{1}{ \cos {}^{2}  x} )}} }\\  \\  = { \blue {\tt{ \frac{1 -  { \sin }^{2}x }{ { \cos }^{2}x } }}}

• Remember from the first identity of trignometry;

[ <em>c</em><em>o</em><em>s</em><em>²</em><em>x</em><em> </em><em>+</em><em> </em><em>s</em><em>i</em><em>n</em><em>²</em><em>x</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em> </em>].

• Therefore: [ <em>c</em><em>o</em><em>s</em><em>²</em><em>x</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em><em>1</em><em> </em><em>-</em><em> </em><em>s</em><em>i</em><em>n</em><em>²</em><em>x</em><em> </em>]

= { \blue{\rm{ \frac{1 -  { \sin}^{2}x }{1 -  { \sin }^{2}x } }}} \\  \\ { \rm{  \blue{= 1 \: }}}

Hence proved.

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