Answer: The answer is 8.
Step-by-step explanation: The first step is to convert the expression into figures. We shall call the unknown number Y. So if we are told “the square of a number,” that means Y squared, or better still, Y^2. Further we are told “the difference between the square of a number and 40” and that can be written as;
Y^2 - 40.
Next we are told that this expression is equal to 3 times that number (that is 3Y). That can now be written out as follows,
Y^2 - 40 = 3Y
If we move all expressions to one side of the equation, what we would have is,
Y^2 - 3Y -40 = 0
(Remember that when a positive value crosses to the other side of an equation it becomes negative and vice versa)
We now have a quadratic equation
Y^2 -3Y - 40 = 0
By factorizing we now have
(Y -8) (Y + 5) = 0
Therefore Y - 8 = 0 or
Y + 5 = 0
Hence, Y = 8 or Y = -5
Since we are asked to calculate the positive solution, Y = 8
Answer:
Check the explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
(a)Let p be the smallest prime divisor of (n!)^2+1 if p<=n then p|n! Hence p can not divide (n!)^2+1. Hence p>n
(b) (n!)^2=-1 mod p now by format theorem (n!)^(p-1)= 1 mod p ( as p doesn't divide (n!)^2)
Hence (-1)^(p-1)/2= 1 mod p hence [ as p-1/2 is an integer] and hence( p-1)/2 is even number hence p is of the form 4k+1
(C) now let p be the largest prime of the form 4k+1 consider x= (p!)^2+1 . Let q be the smallest prime dividing x . By the previous exercises q> p and q is also of the form 4k+1 hence contradiction. Hence P_1 is infinite
Answer:
<u>The sequence is</u>
- 1, 1 + 2, 1 + 2 + 3, 1 + 2 + 3 + 4, ...
Each term is the sum of the consecutive numbers from 1 to that number.
<u>The nth term is the sum of the first n numbers:</u>
- aₙ = 1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n
- aₙ = 1/2n(1 + n) (formula for sum of the n terms of arithmetic progression with the first term of 1 and common difference of 1)
- aₙ = n(n + 1)/2
1) The number of circles in the nth pile is n(n + 1)/2
2) When n tends to infinity the number of circles tends to infinity
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
use a calculator fo find the value
To solve this problem you must follow the proccedure shown below:
1. Amount of lemonade in pints:
1 <span>quart of water=2 pints
1 pint of lemon
(9 ounces of honey)(0.0625 pints/1 ounce)=0.56 pints
Total in pints=2 pints+1 pint+0.56 pints
Total in pints=3.56 pints
2. </span>Amount of lemonade in<span> cups:
Total in cups=(3.56 pints)(2 cups/1 pint)
Total in cups=7.12 cups
3. </span>Amount of lemonade in<span> ounces:
Total in ounces=(7.12 cups)(8 ounces/1 cup)
Total in ounces=56.96 ounces</span>
