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Ivanshal [37]
2 years ago
12

Penny Lyman is the owner and operator of Go109, a motivational consulting business. At the end of its accounting period, Decembe

r 31,
2041, Go 109 has assets of $659,000 and liabilities of $165,000. Using the accounting equation and considering each case independently,
determine the following amounts
Business
1 answer:
zalisa [80]2 years ago
3 0

Based on the accounting equation, the amount for each case can be independently determined as follows:

a. The Penny Lyman, capital, as of December 31, 20Y1, is <u>$494,000.</u>

b. If assets increased by $88,000 and liabilities increased by $27,000, the Penny Layman, capital, as of December 31, 20Y2, is <u>$555,000</u>.

c. If assets decreased by $151,000 and liabilities increased by $13,000, the Penny Layman, capital, as of December 31, 20Y2, is <u>$330,000</u>.

d. If assets increased by $152,000 and liabilities decreased by $16,000 during 20Y2, the Penny Layman, capital, as of December 31, 20Y2, is <u>$672,000</u>.

e. Assuming that as of December 31, 20Y2, assets were $782,000, liabilities were $196,000, and there were no additional investments or withdrawals, and the capital remained $494,000 of 20Y1, then the net income or (loss) for 20Y2 is <u>$92,000</u> ($782,000 - $196,000 - $494,000)

<h3>Data and Calculations:</h3>

Assets at December 31, 20Y1 =$659,000

Liabilities = $165,000

Capital = Assets - Liabilities

= $494,000 ($659,000 - $165,000)

<h3>20Y2:</h3>

Assets = $747,000 ($659,000 + $88,000)

Liabilities = $192,000 ($165,000 + $27,000)

Capital = $555,000 ($747,000 - $192,000)

<h3>Question C:</h3>

Assets = $508,000 ($659,000 - $151,000)

Liabilities = $178,000 ($165,000 + $13,000)

Capital = $330,000 ($508,000 - $178,000)

<h3>Question d:</h3>

Assets = $821,000 ($659,000 + $162,000)

Liabilities = $149,000 ($165,000 - $16,000)

Capital = $672,000 ($821,000 - $149,000)

<h3>Question Completion:</h3>

a. Penny Lyman, capital, as of December 31, 20Y1. $

b. Penny Lyman, capital, as of December 31, 20Y2, assuming that assets increased by $88,000 and liabilities increased by $27,000 during 20Y2. $

c. Penny Lyman, capital, as of December 31, 20Y2, assuming that assets decreased by $151,000 and liabilities increased by $13,000 during 20Y2. $

d. Penny Lyman, capital, as of December 31, 20Y2, assuming that assets increased by $152,000 and liabilities decreased by $16,000 during 20Y2.

e. Net income (or net loss) during 20Y2, assuming that as of December 31, 20Y2, assets were $782,000, liabilities were $196,000, and there were no additional investments or withdrawals.

Learn more about the accounting equation here: brainly.com/question/24401217

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Answer:

The answer is 72.9 dollars.

Explanation:

The reserve ratio of 10% means that bank must keep 10% percent of amount deposited in bank to meet emergency payments and can lend the remaining 90% to other banks. So the second bank can lend 81 dollars that is 90% of 81 dollars. As per this rule second bank has 72.9 dollars (90% of 81) to lend.

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3 years ago
The Most recent financial statements for Moose Tours, Inc., appear below. Sales for 2016 are projected to grow by 20 percent. In
Aneli [31]

Answer:

$5,006.07

Explanation:

The external financing needed = Projected Increase in Assets - Increase in Liabilities - Increase in Retained Earnings

Projected Increase in Asset = Assets Value*Sales Growth Rate

Projected Increase in Assets = $364,720 * 20%

Projected Increase in Assets = $72,944

Increase in Liabilities = Liabilities * Sales Growth Rate

Increase in Liabilities = $69,600 * 20%

Increase in Liabilities = $13,920

<em>To calculate the Increase in Retained Earning, the below calculations are needed:</em>

a. Profit Margin Rate = Net Income / Sales * 100

Profit Margin Rate = 75,000 / 751,000 * 100

Profit Margin Rate = 9.99%

b. Dividend Payout Ratio = Dividend / Net Income * 100

Dividend Payout Ratio = 30,000 / 75,000 * 100

Dividend Payout Ratio = 0.4

Dividend Payout Ratio = 40%

Retention Rate = 1 - Dividend Payout Ratio

Retention Rate = 1 - 0.40

Retention Rate = 0.60

Retention Rate = 60%

c. Expected Sales = $751,000 * 1.20 = $901,200

So, the Increase in Retained Earning = Expected Sales * Profit Margin * Retention Rate = $901,200 *9.99% * 60% = $54,017.93

Therefore, External Fund Needed = $72,944 - $13,920 - $54,017.93 = $5,006.07

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2 years ago
Account balances at the beginning of the year were: accounts receivable, $150,000; and inventory, $260,000. All sales were on ac
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Explanation:

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3 years ago
Hartong Corporation is contemplating purchasing equipment that would increase sales revenues by $185,000 per year and cash opera
krek1111 [17]

Answer:

The simple rate of return on the investment is closest to: C. 10.6%

Explanation:

In Hartong Corporation:

Increasing net income = Increase sales revenues - Cash operating expenses - Annual depreciation expense = $185,000 - $89,000 - $52,000 = $44,000

This is the net income from the equipment per year

Return on the investment (ROI) is calculated by using following formula:

ROI = (Net income/Cost of investment )x 100%

Cost of investment  = Cost of equipment = $416,000

ROI = ($44,000/$416,000) x 100% = 10.6%

8 0
3 years ago
ang Co. manufacturers its products in a continuous process involving two departments, Machining and Assembly. Journalize the ent
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Answer:

a.

Raw Materials $180,000 (debit)

Accounts Payable $180,000 (credit)

b.

Work In Process Machining : Direct Materials $73,000 (debit)

Work In Process  Machining : Indirect Materials $9,000 (debit)

Work In Process  Assembly : Indirect Materials $4,900 (debit)

Raw Materials $86,900 (credit)

c.

Work In Process  Machining : Direct Labor $23,000 (debit)

Work In Process  Assembly : Direct Labor $47,000 (debit)

Salaries Payable $70,000 (credit)

d.

Work In Process  Machining : Depreciation $4,500 (debit)

Work In Process  Assembly : Depreciation  $7,800 (debit)

Accumulated Depreciation $12,300 (credit)

e.

Work In Process  Machining : Overheads $9,700 (debit)

Work In Process  Assembly : Overheads  $11,300 (debit)

Overheads $21,000 (credit)

f.

Work In Process Assembly Department $14,900 (debit)

Finished Goods Inventory $83,400 (debit)

Work In Process Machining Department $98,300 (credit)

g.

Accounts Receivables $100,000 (debit)

Cost of Goods Sold $68,000 (debit)

Sales Revenue $100,000 (credit)

Finished Goods Inventory $68,000 (credit)

Explanation:

Manufacturing Costs are accumulated in the Work In Process Account.

Finished Goods are Transferred from Work In Process Account to Finished Goods Inventory by Debiting Finished Goods Inventory Account and Crediting Work In Process Account.

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