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nalin [4]
2 years ago
9

?/5 =8/10 type the missing number that makes this fraction equal

Mathematics
1 answer:
abruzzese [7]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

4/5 = 8/10

Step-by-step explanation:

x/5 = 8/10

x = 8/10 × 5

x = 4

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Please help math
Naddika [18.5K]
   
\displaystyle\\
15(2a - 2) = 5(a^2 -1) \\  \\ 
30a - 30 = 5a^2-5\\\\
-5a^2 + 30a -30 + 5 =0\\\\
-5a^2 + 30a -25 =0 ~~~~~\Big| \times (-1) \\\\
5a^2 - 30a +25 = 0~~~~~\Big| : 5 \\\\
a^2 - 6a +5 = 0 \\  \\ 
a_{12}= \frac{-b\pm \sqrt{b^2-4ac}}{2a}= \frac{6\pm \sqrt{36-20}}{2}= \frac{6\pm \sqrt{16}}{2}=\frac{6\pm 4}{2}= \boxed{3\pm 2} \\  \\ 
a_1 = 3+ 2 = \boxed{5}\\\\
a_2 = 3-2 = \boxed{1}



8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Holly has watched 39% of a movie that is 122 minutes long.
Scilla [17]

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  48 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

39% of 122 is ...

  0.39 × 122 = 47.58 ≈ 48

Holly has watched about 48 minutes of the movie.

3 0
3 years ago
How many different pairs of faces are congruent in a rectangular prism that is not a cube
Kaylis [27]

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

every rectangular prism has 6 faces, 2 will be congruent together and thw other 4 will be congruent to each other

3 0
2 years ago
a first class postage stamp was $0.02 in 1885. the same first class postage stamp in 2006 was $0.39. what is the percent of incr
Eddi Din [679]

The price was increased by $0.37 just subtract

5 0
3 years ago
Rockwell hardness of pins of a certain type is known to have a mean value of 50 and a standard deviation of 1.2.a. If the distri
zalisa [80]

Answer:

a

 P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062

b

P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

The mean value is \mu = 50

The standard deviation is  \sigma = 1.2

Considering question a

The sample size is  n = 9

Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

      \sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }

=>   \sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{9} }

=>  \sigma_x = 0.4

Generally the probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 9 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as

      P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_{x}}  \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.4 } )

\frac{\= X -\mu}{\sigma }  =  Z (The  \ standardized \  value\  of  \ \= X )

     P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( Z  \ge 2.5 )

=>   P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1-  P( Z  < 2.5 )

From the z table  the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to  2.5  is

    P( Z  < 2.5 ) = 0.99379

=> P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1-0.99379

=> P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062

Considering question b

The sample size is  n = 40

   Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

      \sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }

=>   \sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{40} }

=>  \sigma_x = 0.1897

Generally the (approximate) probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 40 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as  

       P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_x}  \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.1897 } )

=> P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P(Z  \ge 5.2715  )

=>  P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- P(Z < 5.2715  )

From the z table  the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to  5.2715 and

=>  P(Z < 5.2715  ) = 1

So

   P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- 1

=> P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0

5 0
3 years ago
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