Answer: 81% of the variance in dependent variable is explained by this correlation .
Step-by-step explanation:
For X = Independent variable and Y=dependent variable,
If r= correlation coefficient , then we say <em> </em>of the<em> </em>variance in Y is explained by Variable X.
Given: r= 0.90
So, 81% of the variance in dependent variable is explained by this correlation .
The least common denominator for the rational expressions 1/x²-5x-6 and 1/x²-12 x+36 is (x-6)(x+1)(x-6).
In the given question
...(i)
First we will factor each denominator
So,
x²-5x-6
On splitting the factors of the above expression , we get
(x+1)(x-6) ....(ii)
x²-12x+36
On splitting the factors of the above expression , we get
(x-6)(x-6) ...(iii)
Substituting the value of (ii) and (iii) in (i) ,we get ;
As the LCM of denominator is the Least common denominator , we have
LCM of (x+1)(x-6) and (x-6)(x-6)
LCM=(x-6)(x+1)(x-6)
Hence the LCD is (x-6)(x+1)(x-6).
Therefore , the least common denominator for the rational expressions 1/x²-5x-6 and 1/x²-12 x+36 is (x-6)(x+1)(x-6).
Learn more about Least Common Denominator here brainly.com/question/11879136
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