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pav-90 [236]
2 years ago
8

Gymtastic was able to serve large crowds of customers and then adjust operations to serve very few customers thanks to their com

petitive capability related to
Business
1 answer:
balu736 [363]2 years ago
4 0

The competitive capability which relates to flexibility is the reason that Gymtastic was able to serve large crowds of customers and then adjust operations to serve very few customers.

<h3>What is the competitive capability?</h3>

Competitive capability relates to the unique ability possess by a company over other competitors.

In this case, the Gymtastic possess the competitive capability called Flexibility.

In conclusion, the competitive capability which relates to flexibility is the reason that Gymtastic was able to serve large crowds of customers and then adjust operations to serve very few customers.

Read more about Competitive capability

<em>brainly.com/question/5319576</em>

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Angelo invested $4,000 into two accounts. One account paid 4% interest and the other paid 9% interest. He earns 6% interest on t
inn [45]

Answer:

$2,400 was placed in the account earning 4%, and $1,600 was placed in the account earning 9%

Explanation:

In this case, we have two unknowns, so in order to be solved, we need to find two equations.

We know that amount 1, that we call x, plus amount 2, we call y, is 4000.  

<em>x + y = 4000</em>

Also we know, when we add the interest earned on amount 1 to the interest earned on amount 2, the total interest is 6% of 4000, it means: 240

<em>0.04x+0.09y=240</em>

So, we have two equations with two unknowns

<em>x + y = 4000</em>

<em>0.04x+0.09y=240</em>

That we can solve for any method we know. We will use substitution.  Lets clear from first equation the unknown x.

x=4000-y

Then, we substitute in second equation

0.04(4000-y)+0.09y=240

And we solve:

160-0.04y+0.09y=240

0.05y=240-160

y=80/0.05=1600

Now we simply plug this into our first equation and solve for x

x+y=4000

x+1600=4000

x=4000-1600

x=2400

So, $2,400 was placed in the account earning 4%, and $1,600 was placed in the account earning 9%

4 0
3 years ago
Consider the following cash flows for two mutually exclusive capital investment projects. The required rate of return is 7%. Use
konstantin123 [22]

Answer:

$1,900.35

Explanation:

Net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.

The npv can be calculated using a financial calculator:

Cash flow in year 0 = -$32,400

Cash flow in year 1 = $9720

Cash flow in year 2 = $9720

Cash flow in year 3 = $9720

Cash flow in year 4 = $ 4,860

Cash flow in year 5 = $ 4,860

Cash flow in year 6 = $2,430

I =7%

NPV = $1,900.35

To find the NPV using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

3. Press compute

I hope my answer helps you

3 0
3 years ago
Tim is a single, cash-method taxpayer with an AGI of $50,000. In April of this year, Tim paid $740 with his state income tax ret
oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer: $5960

Explanation:

Based on the analysis and the information provided in the question, the amount of taxes that Tim can deduct as an itemized deduction will be the addition of the Tim's state income tax return for the previous year, the state tax that was held during the year and the estimated state tax payment. This will be:

= $740 + $4200 + $1020

= $5960

Therefore, the amount of taxes that Tim can deduct as an itemized deduction will be $5960.

3 0
3 years ago
​matthew's fish fry has a monthly target operating income of​ $7,200. variable expenses are​ 60% of sales and monthly fixed expe
slamgirl [31]

Given, Operating income = 7,200

Fixed expenses = 1800

Let the target sales be assumed to be X

Sales = 7200 + 1800 + 0.6*Sales

X = 7200 +1800 +0.6X

X-0.6X = 9000

0.4X =9000

X = 22,500

Target Sales = 22,500

Break even point = Fixed Costs/(Price -Variable cost)

Break even point = 1,800/(1-0.6) = 1,800/0.4 = 4,500

Break even point =4,500

Margin of Safety = (Target sales - break even point)/ Target Sales

Margin of Safety = (22,500-4,500)/22,500 = 18,000/22,500 = 0.8 = 80%

Margin of Safety =80%

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
in the wealth of nations 1776 Adam smith wrote that markets did not need governments to control them because of the invisible ha
Scorpion4ik [409]
<span>True. In the Wealth of Nations 1776 Adam Smith wrote that markets did not need governments to control them because of the "invisible hand" of competition. Smith focused on how different pricing and distribution within an economy are dispersed using an invisible hand idea. Some economists state that the uneven distribution and market happenings frustrate the </span>government which lead to unwanted shortages and surpluses of items. 
3 0
2 years ago
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