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bonufazy [111]
2 years ago
12

Help me asap!!!! please

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lubov Fominskaja [6]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

x = 3 should be the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

y is not graphed so y isn't part of the equation while x is so its X = K (K being the number that it goes up on) same thing applies to y if its horizontal then the equation is Y = K)

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Henry was building a tent and had four spikes that he had to pound into the ground. The net of one of the spikes is shown. What
Misha Larkins [42]
It is exactly 4008 and thats why people love you have a nice day ^-^
3 0
3 years ago
Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has
RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

5 0
3 years ago
C=100+25h solve for h
aivan3 [116]

Answer:

h=(c/25)-4

Step-by-step explanation:

c-100 = 25h.   "/25"

(c/25)-4 = h

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find the LCM of k^2 + 3k + 2 and 2k^2 + 14k + 20.
Airida [17]

Answer:

  C.  2(k +2)(k +5)(k +1)

Step-by-step explanation:

The LCM will be the product of unique factors.

  (k^2 + 3k + 2)=(k+1)(k+2)\\(2k^2 + 14k + 20)=2(k+2)(k+5)

The unique factors are 2, (k+1), (k+2), (k+5), so the LCM is their product:

  2(k+1)(k+2)(k+5) . . . . matches choice C

3 0
3 years ago
Identify the transformation of the geometric figure performed in the graph.
noname [10]
The answer to this problem is A
4 0
3 years ago
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