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Stells [14]
4 years ago
6

Help pleaseee

Mathematics
2 answers:
DIA [1.3K]4 years ago
8 0

Answer: The scale factor was used in the dilation = -4

Step-by-step explanation:

  • The scale factor of dilation is the ratio of the side-length in the image to the corresponding side length in the pre-image.

From the given picture, the length of side SR in pre-image = 3cm

The length of corresponding side S'R' in image = 12 cm

Then , the scale factor of dilation will be :-

k=\dfrac{12}{3}=4

Since , the enlargement appearing on the other side , then the scale factor becomes negative.

Hence, the scale factor of this dilation =-4.

lidiya [134]4 years ago
7 0
△Q′R′S′ is the image of △QRS under a dilation through point C.

What scale factor was used in the dilation

-4

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A spinner has equal regions numbered 1 through 20. What is the probability that the spinner will stop on an odd number or a mult
klio [65]

Answer:

<em>Probability that the spinner will stop on an odd number or a multiple of 5 is </em><em>0.6</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability = \frac{Required outcomes}{Total possible outcomes}

We are given the equal regions numbered from 1 through 20 which means that our total possible outcomes are 20

<em>Total possible outcomes: 20</em>


<em>Outcomes that spinner will stop on an odd number, n(Odd): 10</em>

1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19

Probability of spinner stoping on Odd number:

P(Odd) = \frac{n(Odd)}{Total} = \frac{10}{20} = \frac{1}{2} = 0.5


Outcomes that spinner will stop on a multiple of 5, n(5): 4

5, 10, 15, 20

Probability of spinner stoping on multiple of 5:

P(5) = \frac{n(5)}{Total} = \frac{4}{20} = \frac{1}{5} = 0.2

Odd numbers which are a multiple of 5 are: 5 and 15

So,

P(Odd and 5) = \frac{2}{20}=\frac{1}{10}=0.1

Thus Probability of spinner stopping at odd number or a multiple of 5 becomes:

P(Odd or 5) = P(Odd) + P(5) - P(Odd and 5) = 0.5 + 0.2 - 0.1 = 0.6

7 0
4 years ago
Please help asap. What is the missing statement and reason from the proof?
Musya8 [376]
A vertical angles and Angles 1 & 3
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A paint company mixes it's paint with water to create more paint per gallon. They currently have ten gallon jugs which contain 1
Karo-lina-s [1.5K]
<h3>Answer:  1.25 gallons</h3>

==================================

Explanation:

They currently have ten gallon jugs that contain 10% water, so this means 0.10*10 = 1 gallon of the jug is water and the other 10-1 = 9 gallons is paint. This is assuming the cans are just paint and water.

The ratio of paint to water is 90:10 which reduces to 9:1

Often it helps to reduce as much as possible, but it's actually more handy in this case to keep it at 90:10 so you can see the two parts add back up to 100%

--------------

Let x be the amount of water we add. This amount is in gallons.

We start off with 1 gallon of water and it bumps up to 1+x gallons of water.

The overall amount of 10 gallons also bumps up to 10+x gallons.

We want a ratio of 80:20 this time, so we want 20 parts water and 80 parts paint. In other words, we want 20/(20+80) = 20/100 = 20% water

Divide (1+x) over (10+x) to get (1+x)/(10+x). This represents the fraction of water. We want this fraction to be equal to 0.20, which is the 20% water amount. It is also equal to 20/100.

--------------

(1+x)/(10+x) = 20/100

100(1+x) = 20(10+x) ... cross multiply

100+100x = 200+20x ... distribute

100x-20x = 200-100

80x = 100

x = 100/80 ... divide both sides by 80

x = 1.25

You need to add 1.25 gallons of water

--------------

If you add 1.25 gallons of water, then,

amount of water = 1+x = 1+1.25 = 2.25

amount of paint&water = 10+x = 10+1.25 = 11.25

So you'll have 2.25 gallons of water out of 11.25 gallons of water&paint mix

2.25/11.25 = 0.2 = 20% water

This confirms our answer.

--------------

Extra info:

1.25 gallons = 1 gallon + 1/4 gallon

1.25 gallons = 1 gallon + 1 quart

This is because 1 gallon = 4 quarts, so 1 quart = 1/4 gallon.

5 0
3 years ago
?
statuscvo [17]
S=θr
10.91=θ5
10.91/5=θ
therefore
θpie/180= your answer in radians
8 0
3 years ago
A 2-pound bag of sugar contains 227 one-teaspoon servings and costs $2.49. A batch of muffins uses 1 2 cup of sugar. How many wh
ZanzabumX [31]

Answer:

a) 9 whole batches can be made

b) The cost of sugar for each batch = $0.26

Step-by-step explanation:

A 2-pound bag of sugar contains 227 one-teaspoon servings and costs $2.49.

This means:

2 pound bag of sugar = 227 teaspoon servings

2 pounds bag of sugar cost $2.49

We are told that:

A batch of muffins uses 1/2 cup of sugar.

a).How many whole batches can you make if you use as much of the sugar as possible?

(1 cup = 48 teaspoons)

Hence, A batch of muffins = 1/2 cups of sugar = 48 teaspoons of sugar ÷ 2

= 24 teaspoons of sugar

Hence:

24 teaspoons of sugar = 1 batch of muffins

227 teaspoons of sugar = x

Cross Multiply

24 × x = 1 × 227

x = 227/24

x = 9.4583333333 batches of muffins

We are asked to name the number of whole batches that can be made.

Therefore, 9 whole batches of muffins can be made

b) What is the cost of sugar for each batch? (do not consider leftover sugar in the cost calculation.) You can make a total of batches at $ per batch.

Since we are not to consider the leftover sugar in the cost calculation,

1 batch = 24 teaspoons of sugar

9 whole batches =

9 × 24 teaspoons = 216 teaspoons of sugar was used

The left over = 227 - 216 = 11 teaspoons of sugar is left

We know that:

227 teaspoons of sugar = $2.49

216 teaspoons of sugar = x

Cross Multiply

= 216 × $2.49/227

= $2.369339207

24 teaspoons of sugar = 1 batch of muffins

Therefore,

216 teaspoons of sugar =

$2.369339207

24 teaspoons of sugar =

24 × $2.369339207/ 216

= $0.2632599119

Approximately = $0.26

Therefore, the cost of sugar for each batch = $0.26

8 0
4 years ago
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