Answer:
(a) The arbitrage strategy is to buy zeros with face values of $140 and $1,140 and respective maturities of one and two years, and simultaneously sell the coupon bond.
(b) The profit on the activity equals $0.72 on each bond.
Explanation:
The price of the coupon bond = 140 × PV(7.9%, 2) + 1000 × PV(7.9%, 2)
= 140 × (1-(1/1.079)^2)/0.079 + 1,000/1.079^2
= $1,108.93
If the coupons were withdrawn and sold as zeros individually, then the coupon payments could be sold separately on the basis of the zero maturity yield for maturities of one and two years.
[140/1.07] + [1,140/1.08^2] = $1,108.21.
The arbitrage strategy is to buy zeros with face values of $140 and $1,140 and respective maturities of one and two years, and simultaneously sell the coupon bond.
The profit on the activity equals $0.72 on each bond.
Answer:
Sep 11
Dr Cash 590.00
Cr Sales 590.00
Dec 31
Dr Warranty expense 59.00
Cr Estimated warranty liability 59.00
July 24
Dr Estimated warranty liability 41.00
Cr Repair parts inventory 41.00
Explanation:
Home Store Journal entry
Sep 11
Dr Cash 590.00
Cr Sales 590.00
Dec 31
Dr Warranty expense (590*10%) 59.00
Cr Estimated warranty liability 59.00
July 24
Dr Estimated warranty liability 41.00
Cr Repair parts inventory 41.00
Iron is the answer to the question
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation:
Given that,
Dividend, D0 =$1.20
Price, P0 = $50.00
Growth rate, g = 6% (constant)
Based on the DCF approach, then
Cost of Equity:
= [D0 × (1 + g) ÷ P0] + g
= [(1.20 × (1 + 0.06)) ÷ 50] + 0.06
= (1.272 ÷ 50) + 0.06
= 0.02544 + 0.06
= 0.08544 or 8.54%
Hence, the cost of equity from retained earnings is 8.54%.
If the number is 12,759 and they ask to round to the nearest 10,000 then you look at the thousands place (where the 2 is) and is its less than 5 round down and if its more round up. so the answer would be 10,000
