Answer:
The blank spaces are not easy to spot here but I found a similar question with their correct locations. The answers for each blank will be as follows respectively;
new; new ; after-tax cost of debt ; after-tax cost of debt ; after-tax cashflows; new debt; not outstanding debt ; irrelevant ;new capital; yield to maturity; coupon rate; yield to maturity; long term debt ; long-term projects.
Explanation:
The cost of new debt is the before-tax cost of debt and does not reflect the cost of outstanding debt. Interest paid on the new debt is tax-deductible and that's why you calculate the after-tax cost of debt to use in the firms WACC formula. Since the main goal of a business managers is to increase a firm value, you use the after tax cashflows to valuate the business. Additionally, the cost at which the firm borrowed in the past is irrelevant in WACC calculation because the cost we need to know is of the new capital.
Answer: The income statement should reflect $15,000.
Explanation: The reason is because accounting procedures are always guided by certain principles or concepts. One of such concepts is the Realization Concept. This simply states that income is considered to have been earned when the goods/services have been dispatched /rendered to the client and the client has incurred liability for such (or has accepted his/her indebtedness). The Accrual Concept is also applicable in the above instance because this concept/principle states that revenues and expenses are recognized as soon as they are earned and incurred and not when money is expended or received. So basically, XYZ Law firm has provided services for two clients. One of them has paid while the other will pay sometime later. Both of them are already recognized as revenue and the current income statement will reflect revenue transactions to the tune of $15,000.
Answer:
the labor rate variance is $4,050 unfavorable
Explanation:
The computation of the labor rate variance is shown below:
= Actual hours × (standard rate - actual rate)
= 4,500 hours × ($19 per hour - $19.90 per hour)
= $4,050 unfavorable
Hence, the labor rate variance is $4,050 unfavorable
Answer:
$53,000
Explanation:
Data given in the question
Beginning Accounts Receivable = $26,000
Credit Sales = $130,000
Collections of credit sales = $87,000
Write-offs = $16,000
So
As we know that
Ending Accounts Receivable = Beginning Accounts Receivable + Credit Sales - Collections of credit sales - Write-offs
= $26,000 + $130,000 - $87,000 - $16,000
= $53,000
The potential for risk is higher when considering a foreign market with a politically unstable nation.
What is unstable nation?
Ukraine. They already lost a portion of their country to Russia, Russia is obstructing important ports, and their population is greatly dispersed and in need. There is a lot of corruption, and some individuals want to be more like the rest of Europe while others prefer to be more like Russia. Additionally, they are totally dependent on Russia for their energy needs. Additionally, there is hardly one in Ukraine who genuinely supports the state.
Bosnia is second. Even now, so many years after the conflict, there is still no functioning administration, and the country's divisions are just becoming worse.
Sadly, the UK is probably in third place. No of what kind of agreement is ultimately reached, Brexit is incredibly polarizing. It may cause discontent in Scotland and particularly Northern Ireland.
To study more about unstable nation
brainly.com/question/3999439
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