Answer: $36.90
Step-by-step explanation: $60 25% off = $45. $45 18% off is $36.90
Answer:
Red color= 28 balloon
Blue color= 14 balloon
White color= 7 balloon
Step-by-step explanation:
Given: There are 49 balloons
As given, there are 2 red balloon equal to the number of blue balloon
∴ 
Again given, there are 1/2 white balloon equal to the number of blue balloon.
∴ 
As above equation, we can understand that:
multiplying both side by 2
⇒ 
which mean, if we have 2 blue balloon then we will have 4 red and 1 white balloon.
∴ Total combination of all color of balloon= 
Now, checking how many number of times combination can we have in 49 balloon.
Next, finding number of balloon in each color.
Red color= 
Blues color= 
White color= 
We are given chance of winning a game is 1/50.
In decimal form 1/50 could be written as 0.02.
So, for each game, the chance of winning is 0.02.
Therefore, chance of loss would be = 1 -(0.02) = 0.98.
Chance of loss of 50 independent games = 0.98*0.98*0.98*0.98...... upto 50 times, that is (0.98)^50.
The chance of winning at least once = 1 - (0.98)^50.
We got (0.98)^50 = 0.36417
Therefore, 1 - (0.98)^50 = 1 - 0.36417.
We get 0.63583.
Therefore, correct option is c. 0.6358.
It should be y = 252 sorry if its wrong !
♥ thus y’/(yf-y) = k, where yf=6000;
<span>♠ hence ln(yf-y) =-kx +C; </span>
<span>at x=0 y(0)=y0=1000, hence C= ln(yf-y0); </span>
<span>and we get: </span>
<span>ln((yf-y)/(yf-y0) =-kx; or; </span>
<span>yf-y =(yf-y0)*exp(-kx); at last </span>
<span>♦ y = 6000- 5100*exp(-0.0015*x);
</span>
<span><span><span>dy</span><span>dt</span></span>∝y=ky</span>separate the variables<span><span><span>dy</span>y</span>=kdt</span>integrate both sides:<span>lny=kt+C</span><span>y(t)=C<span>e<span>kt</span></span></span>by plugging in t=0 we find that C the original population<span>y(0)=C<span>e0</span>=C⟹C=<span>y0</span></span>so we get<span><span>y=<span>y0</span><span>e<span>kt</span></span></span></span>
