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drek231 [11]
3 years ago
8

Suppose the chance of winning a game is 1/50. If you play the game 50 times independently, is it certain that you will win? If n

ot, what is the chance of winning at least once?
a.0.0200
b.0.9462
c.0.6358
d.1.0000
Mathematics
1 answer:
arlik [135]3 years ago
5 0

We are given chance of winning a game is 1/50.

In decimal form 1/50 could be written as 0.02.

So, for each game, the chance of winning is 0.02.

Therefore, chance of loss would be = 1 -(0.02) = 0.98.

Chance of loss of 50 independent games = 0.98*0.98*0.98*0.98...... upto 50 times, that is (0.98)^50.

The chance of winning at least once = 1 - (0.98)^50.

We got (0.98)^50 = 0.36417

Therefore, 1 - (0.98)^50 = 1 - 0.36417.

We get 0.63583.

Therefore, correct option is c. 0.6358.

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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For a project, Gabrielle made a model of an Egyptian pyramid. The square base has a side length measuring 10 inches. The pyramid
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The pyramid is shown in the diagram below.
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3 0
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Express in exponential form 200×75​
GREYUIT [131]

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Now matter I will do both.

As in scientific notation.

200*75

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As in prime factorization.

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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