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Ivanshal [37]
4 years ago
12

Is 1/10 of 8000 equal 80

Mathematics
1 answer:
Alexxandr [17]4 years ago
8 0
No, 1/10th of 8000 is 800 just take away one 0
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This quiz it is rlly hard
lawyer [7]

Answer:

396cm I think.

Step-by-step explanation:

10 x (27 - 8) + 9 x 24

4 0
3 years ago
How do I do this problem???
Andreas93 [3]
A. there are 72 right-handed batters. this is what you do:
5:8
45:?
45/5=9
8*9=72 so
45:72 
b. there are 45 left-handed batters
the total batters is 45+72=117
so the ratio of left-handed to the total batter would be 45:117
hope this helps :)

4 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!!!
LekaFEV [45]

Answer:

500

Step-by-step explanation:

It's a box with a square base, so let's say the width and length are x and the height is y.

The surface area of the box without the top is:

A = x² + 4xy

300 = x² + 4xy

The volume of the box is:

V = x²y

Solve for y in the first equation and substitute into the second:

y = (300 − x²) / 4x

V = x² (300 − x²) / 4x

V = x (300 − x²) / 4

V = 75x − ¼ x³

To optimize V, find dV/dx and set to 0:

dV/dx = 75 − ¾ x²

0 = 75 − ¾ x²

x = 10

So the volume of the box is:

V = 75x − ¼ x³

V = 500

The maximum volume is 500 cm³.

4 0
4 years ago
What is the probability of picking a blue marble from a bag of 3 blue marbles, 4 orange marbles, 2 yellow marbles and 1 red marb
REY [17]
I thinks it’s 20 because it’s easy
3 0
3 years ago
7. In a state lottery, a player must choose 8 of the numbers from 1 to 40. The lottery commission then performs an experiment th
Vlad1618 [11]

Answer:a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)=1.3×10^-8

b) P(7 of the players number are drrawn)=3.33×10^-c) P(at least 6 of the players number were drawn)=1.84×10^-4

Step-by-step explanation:

Players has 8 combinations of numbers from 1-40. The outcome S contains all the combinations of 8 out of 40

a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)= 1/40/8= 1.3×10^-8

There are one in hundred million chances that the draw numbers are precisely the chosen ones.

b) Number of ways of drawing 78 selected numbers from 1-40=8×(40-7)

8×32

P(7 of the players number are drawn)=8×32/40 =3.33×10^-6.

There are approximately 300,000 chances that 7 of the players numbers are chosen

c) P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)= 32/2×(8/6) ways to draw.

P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)=P(all 8 chosen are drawn)+P(7 players numbers drawn)+P(6 chosen are drawn) = 1+ 8 x32/40/8 +[8\6 ×32/2]

P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn) = 1.84×10^-4.

There are approximately 5400chances that at least6 of the numbers drawn are chosen by the player.

5 0
4 years ago
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