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scoray [572]
2 years ago
5

How can 1% of 300 be used to determine 64% of 300? Enter your answers in the boxes to correctly complete the statement. 1% of 30

0 is , so 64% of 300 is .
Mathematics
2 answers:
Ratling [72]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1% of 300 is 3 so if you multiply that 3 by 64, you get 192 which is also 64% of 300

Step-by-step explanation:

.01 x 300 = 3

3 x 64 = 192

.64 x 300 = 192

julia-pushkina [17]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

1% of 300 is 3, so 64% of 300 is 192.

Step-by-step explanation:

If you find how much 1% of 300 equals, you can multiply that number by the percentage you're trying to find (64, in this scenario) by 1%t of that number (in this case, 1% is 3).

64*3=192

Hope this helps! Have a good day :)

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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7 0
3 years ago
Y=4x+28 sorry some is cut off
Rus_ich [418]
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x y 2 -20 3 -16
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Slope:
4
4
y-intercept:
−
28
-
28
x
y
2
−
20
3
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x y 2 -20 3 -16
image of graph
y
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8
y
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7 0
3 years ago
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shutvik [7]

Answer:

  3.  f(12) = -10; f(37) = -60

  4.  f(12) = -102; f(37) = -352

Step-by-step explanation:

3. Put the numbers in the formula and do the arithmetic:

  f(12) = 12 -2(12-1) = 12 -22 = -10

  f(37) = 12 -2(37-1) = 12 -72 = -60

__

4. The explicit formula for an arithmetic sequence with first term a1 and common difference d is ...

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3 years ago
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I think the answer is 5 feet 3 inches
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3 years ago
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