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stellarik [79]
2 years ago
14

The break-even quantity for a certain kitchen appliance is 6,000 units. The selling price is $10 per unit, and the variable cost

is $4 per unit. What must be the fixed cost to break even at 6,000 units? A. above $50,000 B. between $40,001 and $45,000 C. between $45,001 and $50,000 D. less than $35,000 E. between $35,000 and $40,000
Business
1 answer:
Maslowich2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

I would choose A. above $50,000

Explanation:

Because 6,000 x 10= 60,000

Then 60,000 x 4= 240,000

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Bodin Company manufactures finger splints for kids who get tendonitis from playing video games. The firm had the following inven
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

Raw Material $191,000

Direct labor $300,000

Actual manufacturing overhead $170,000

Actual selling and administrative expenses $115,000

The company applies manufacturing overhead at the rate of 60 percent of direct-labor cost.

1.

Prime Cost = Direct Material + Direct Labor

Prime Cost = $191,000 + $300,000 = 491,000

2.

Cost of goods manufactured                                    $

Direct material                                                      $191,000

Add: Direct Labor                                                $300,000

Add: Manufacturing overhead                           <u>$170,000</u>

Manufacturing cost                                             <u>$661,000</u>

3.

Manufacturing cost                                             $661,000

Add: Work in process inventory at January 1    $235,000  

Less: Work in process inventory at January 31 <u>$251,000</u>

Cost of Goods Manufactured                             <u>$645,000</u>

4.

Cost of Goods Manufactured                             $645,000

Add: Finished Good inventory at January 1      $125,000  

Less: Finished Good inventory at January 31   <u>$117,000</u>

Cost of Goods Sold                                            <u>$653,000</u>

5.

Manufacturing overhead Account Balance

Actual overhead                = $175,000

Manufacturing overhead   = $180,000  (300,000 x 60% )

Over applied manufacturing overhead = $180,000 - $175,000

Over applied manufacturing overhead = $5,000

* Data was missing for the calculations, complete question is attached with this answer, Please find that.

3 0
3 years ago
Each unit requires 0.25 direct labor-hours and direct laborers are paid $14.00 per hour. In addition, the variable manufacturing
pshichka [43]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Each unit requires 0.25 direct labor-hours and direct laborers are paid $14.00 per hour. In addition, the variable manufacturing overhead rate is $1.60 per direct labor-hour. The fixed manufacturing overhead is $95,000 per quarter.

Direct labor per unit= 0.25*14= $3.5

Direct labor equation= 3.5*x

x= units produced

For example:

100 units

Direct labor= 3.5*100= $350

7 0
3 years ago
You now need to plan for the holiday rush! When the holidays hit, Trader Dan's has a massive increase in customers coming to the
jasenka [17]

Answer: dan needs a faster pace

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Acheson Corporation, which applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours, has provided the following data for its
Amanda [17]

Answer:

Over-applied by $3,842

Explanation:

If<em>, Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads, overheads have been overapplied.</em>

<em>and</em>

<em>Since, Applied Overheads < Actual Overheads, overheads have been under- applied.</em>

Applied Overheads = Predetermined rate x Actual Activity

where,

Predetermined rate = Budgeted Overheads  ÷ Budgeted Activity

therefore,

Predetermined rate = $ 157,050 ÷ 4,500

                                  = $34.90

Applied Overheads = $34.90 x 4,580 = $159,842

<em>Since, Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads, overheads have been overapplied.</em>

Over-applied overheads = $159,842 - $ 156,000 = $3,842

5 0
3 years ago
Five individuals organized Miami Music Corporation on January 1. At the end of January 31, the following monthly financial data
s344n2d4d5 [400]

Answer:

a. Profit(loss) = Total revenue - Total expenses

= 131,000 - 90,500

= $41,000

The company did in fact generate<u> profit of $41,000 </u>and this can be shown from the Income Statement which is where profit or loss is calculated.

b. A company uses its assets to pay off its liabilities so if the liabilities are less than the assets then the company is capable of paying off its liabilities:

Assets = Cash + Accounts Receivable + Supplies

= 30,800 + 25,300 + 40,700

= $96,800

Liabilities are just the Accounts Payable of $25,700.

<em>Liabilities are less than Assets so Miami Music does indeed have sufficient resources to pay its liabilities. </em>

This information comes from the <u>Balance Sheet</u> which is where assets and liabilities are shown.

7 0
3 years ago
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