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nirvana33 [79]
3 years ago
13

Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Amanda [17]3 years ago
5 0

Step-by-step explanation:

it is a 1-to-1 function.

there are no 2 different values of x that have the same y result value.

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