Answer:
none of these
Step-by-step explanation:
A number is divisible by 10 if the last digit of the number is 0. The numbers 20, 40, 50, 170, and 990 are all divisible by 10 because their last digit is zero, 0.
Company fixed cost = $10 million = $10,000,000
Variable cost per pair = $5
Company charges each pair = $15
Hence the company makes $10 profit per pair
regardless the company fixed cost and only considering the variable cost.
Let subtract the variable cost per pair from the
company charging each pair = 15 - 5 = $10
Thus the company now makes $10 per pair, and it has
to sell 1,000,000 pairs of gloves to reach the break-even point. The break-even
point refers to the point where total cost and revenue are equal.
<span>Thus for 1,000,000 pairs, the company total earning =
10 x 1,000,000 = $10,000,000 = $10 million </span>
Answer:
option 4: The line x = 2 is not included in the solution region is the correct option.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the inequality
x > 2
It is clear that the given inequality is in the simple form which indicates that x is greater than 2.
Please check the attached graph.
As x is greater than 2, thus a dashed line at x = 2 on the graph indicate indicates that x = 2 is not included in the solution region.
- <em>Please remember that inequalities that use < or > symbols are drawn with a dashed line in order to display that line is not included in the region.</em>
Thus, the solution to the inequality is:

The solution indicates that that the value of x will be greater than 2.
Please check the attached graph.
A dashed line at x = 2 on the graph indicates that x = 2 is not included in the solution region.
Hence, option 4: The line x = 2 is not included in the solution region is the correct option.
Answer:
when the most convincing or persuasive evidence appears first in the report, followed by background information
Step-by-step explanation:
hope this helps
just delete this if it's wrong. I wasn't too sure
A unit multiplier is a conversion factor of value 1 that we can use to convert quantities.
We want to convert 123 pounds per mile to ounces per centimeter.
First, we are going to express the quantity to convert as a fraction:
123 pounds per mile=

Next, we are going to find our multipliers:
- We know for our problem that there are 5,280 feet in 1 mile, so our first multiplier will be:

- We also know that there are 16 ounces in 1 pound, so our second multiplier will be:

- We know that there are 12 inches in 1 foot, so our third multiplier will be:

- We know that t<span>here are approximately 2.54 cm in 1 inch, so our fourth multiplier will be: </span>

Now we can put all our multipliers together:

We can conclude that the answer is
0.01