Answer:
The answer is: Obligation that has a distant due date exceeding company's operating cycle.
Explanation:
A current liability is a financial obligation due within one year (or one normal operation cycle).
So a financial obligation that has a due date that exceeds a company´s operating cycle should have been directly classified as a long term liability (or a non current liability) in the first place. It simply is not a current liability that is changed into a long term liability, it always was a long term liability.
The other options represent the steps necessary for turning a current liability into a long term liability.
- Intend to refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
- Demonstrate the ability to complete the refinancing.
- Subsequently refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
The tax sheltered prgrma to encourage self employed people to acculumlate reitment funds is called Keogh plan.
A Keogh plan is a tax-deferred pension plan available to self-employed individuals or unincorporated organizations for retirement functions. A Keogh plan can be set up as both a defined-benefit plan or a defined-contribution plan, though maximum plans are set as the latter. A Keogh plan is a type of retirement investment account for self-employed people and business owners. Contributions to a Keogh plan are made pre-tax, while withdrawals in retirement face income tax. Positive sorts of Keogh plans may have higher contribution limits than other retirement debts.
A Keogh plan (is a tax-deferred pension account for self-employed people and employees of unincorporated businesses. Like IRAs, an worker can also put almost available investment into a Keogh plan, and the investment earnings develop on a tax-deferred basis.
Learn more about Keogh plan here:-
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Answer:Umm fade out is the opposite if fade in, but it might not be correct.
Explanation:
;)
Answer: I am right, the increased demand represents a rightward shift of the aggregate demand curve.
Explanation:
The increase in aggregate demand by foreigners occurred as a result of a fall in the value of the US dollars and aggreagrate price level stayed the same. Therefore, the change in aggregate demand didn't occur as a result of a change in price.
If agregrate demand changed as a result of a change in the aggregate price levels, there would be a change in quantity demanded and a movement along the demand curve.
It's only a change in price that result results in a movement along the aggregate demand curve.
Other factors that leads to a change in demand either shifts the aggregate demand curve to the left or to the right.
Therefore, an increase in aggregate demand as a result of the fall in value of US dollars causes the aggregate demand curve to shift to the right.
The shift in the aggregate demand curve to the right shows that demand has increased but aggregate price hasn't changed.
Answer:
$258,500
Explanation:
The terms FOB shipping point indicates that ownership of the goods will passes to the buyer immediately the goods are accepted or collected from the seller by the public carrier. Since the goods in the question are already in transit, they should be added to the closing stock.
FOB destination destination implies ownership of the goods passes to the buyer at the destination. Since the goods in the questions are still in transit, they should be included in the closing stock.
Therefore, we have:
December 31 inventory = $210,000 + $24,000 + $24,500 = $258,500
Therefore, Bonita should report $258,500 as its December 31 inventory,
