Answer:
Return on investment will be 9.38 %
So option (c) will be correct option
Explanation:
We have given purchase price = $60
Dividend received = $0.63
Selling price = $65
We have to find the return on investment
We know that return on investment is given by
Return in investment ![=\frac{selling\ price-purchase\ price+dividend\ received]}{purchase\ price}=\frac{65-60+0.63}{60}=0.0938=9.383](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%5Cfrac%7Bselling%5C%20price-purchase%5C%20price%2Bdividend%5C%20received%5D%7D%7Bpurchase%5C%20price%7D%3D%5Cfrac%7B65-60%2B0.63%7D%7B60%7D%3D0.0938%3D9.383)
%
So return on investment will be 9.38 %
So option (c) is the correct option
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": The number of fees a bank charge is likely to be greater than the interest a bank would pay on a teenagers’ balance as they are first starting to save in a savings account.
Explanation:
Banks tend to set higher fees on teenagers' savings accounts because <em>they do not have any credit history</em>. This makes them <em>potentially riskier in financial terms</em> in front of debt for overdrafts, for instance. For the same reason, banks usually provide a low-interest rate on savings and restrictions that are important to be aware of before choosing one bank over another to open the account.
<span>In this situation coca-cola used what is called a market modification strategy. A market modification strategy is one that a company uses in order to increase use or consumption of a product or service that they offer. In this case, coca-cola was attempting to increase consumption of its product by selling it to a group that does not consume the common breakfast drink.</span>
Answer:
the first one at the left goes with the third one on the left.
the second on the left goes with the second one .
the third one goes with the first one
and the last one goes with the last one
Answer:
Manufacturing overhead volume variance= $5,000 favorable
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Estimated overhead allocation rate= 4 + 6= $10 per direct labor hour
Actual number of hours= 31,500
Standard hours were allowed= 32,000
<u>To calculate the overhead volume variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>
<u></u>
Manufacturing overhead volume variance= (Estimated manufacturing overhead rate*<u>standard</u> allocation base) - (Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base)
Manufacturing overhead volume variance= (10*32,000) - (10*31,500)
Manufacturing overhead volume variance= $5,000 favorable
