Answer:
you have 33 ones and 40 fives
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
C
Step-by-step explanation:
In order to write the equation, you need to identify the slope and y-intercept.
1) the y intercept is what y is when x=0. According to the table, it is -2.
2) the slope is the change in the y values over the change in the x values. Notice that the y values are increasing by one for every increase in 1 in the x values, so the slope is 1/1 or 1.
3) we can then put those values into slope-intercept form which is y=mx+b where m is the slope and b is the intercept.
4) so the equation is y=(1)x-2 or y=x-2 (they are the same)
Answer:
x = -2
Step-by-step explanation:
f(x)= 5(x-2)
since, f(x)= -20
-20 = 5(x-2)
x-2 = -20/5
x = - 4 + 2
x = -2
The profitability index of an investment with cash flows in years 0 thru 4 of -340, 120, 130, 153, and 166, respectively, and a discount rate of 16 percent is: 15%.
<h3>
Profitability index</h3>
First step is to find the Net present value (NPV) of the given cash flow using discount rate PVF 16% and PV of cash flow which in turn will give us net present value of 49.7.
Second step is to calculate the profitability index
Profitability index = 49.7/340
Profitability index = .15×100
Profitability index=15%
Therefore the profitability index of an investment with cash flows in years 0 thru 4 of -340, 120, 130, 153, and 166, respectively, and a discount rate of 16 percent is: 15%.
Learn more about Profitability index here:brainly.com/question/3805108
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