Answer:
Do = $2.00
D1= Do(1+g)1 = $2(1+0.2)1 = $2.40
D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.2)2 = $2.88
D3= Do(1+g)3 = $2(1+0.2)3 = $3.456
D4= Do(1+g)4 = $2(1+0.2)4 = $4.1472
D5= Do(1+g)5 = $2(1+0.2)5 = $4.97664
PHASE 1
V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2 + D3/(1+ke)3 +D4/(1+ke)4 + D5/(1+ke)5
V1 = 2.40/(1+0.15) + 2.88/(1+0.15)2 + 3.456/(1+0.15)3 + 4.1472/(1+0.15)4 + 4.97664/(1+0.15)5
V1 = $2.0870 + $2.1777 + $2.2723 + $2.3712 + $2.4742
V1 = $11.3824
PHASE 2
V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n
V2 = $4.97664(1+0.02)/(0.15-0.02)(1+0.02)5
V2 = $5.0762/0.1435
V2 = $35.3742
Po = V1 + V2
Po = $11.3824 + $35.3742
Po = $46.76
Explanation: This is a typical question on valuation of shares with two growth rate regimes. In the first phase, the value of the share would be obtained by capitalizing the dividend for each year by the cost of equity of the company. The dividend for year 1 to year 5 was obtained by subjecting the current dividend paid(Do) to growth rate. The growth rate In the first regime was 20%.
In the second phase, the value of shares would be calculated by taking cognizance of the second growth rate of 2%. In this phase, the last dividend paid in year 5 would be discounted at the appropriate discount rate after it has been adjusted for growth.
Answer:
$100,000 and $2,500
Explanation:
The computation of the principal and the interest due at the end of the 6 months is shown below:
As we know that
Simple interest is
= Principal × rate of interest × number of months ÷ (total number of months in a year)
= $100,000 × 5% × (6 months ÷ 12 months)
= $2,500
The total amount would she paid is
= Principal + interest
= $100,000 + $2,500
= $102,500
I would say C: vocabulary. I don't have any other form of context so take my answer with a grain of salt, but that seems the most likely to me.
Answer:
Yes this is True because this conversion is used to capture the differences in cost of living between countries.
