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ella [17]
2 years ago
10

(please use fish method) Ella buys a 32$ lunch and leaves 20% tip. How much did she pay together?

Mathematics
1 answer:
inna [77]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$38.40

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 32 bty $.20 you get $6.40 which would be the amount for the tip. add the tip amount and lunch together. that gives you $38.40

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Describe or show two ways to find the following product: 1 1/3x 2.
Alenkasestr [34]

1 and 1/3 time 2?  i thinks that's what you want?

or is it 1/3x squared?  

I;ll presume its 1 and 1/3 time 2

first way:

Multiple whole numbers first 1 x 2 = 2

Multiple fraction by the two  1/3 x 2 = 2/3

now add them together

2 and 2/3

second way

Make 1 and 1/3 improper = 4/3

make 2 into a  a/b form = 2/1  

now 4/3 x 2/1 = 8/3 now make a mixed number  2 and 2/3

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
△FSB∼△ZDR .
Leya [2.2K]

Answer:  22 units.

Step-by-step explanation:

Here FSB and ZDR are two triangles.

In which, FS = 38 unit, FB = 55 unit, ZD = 15.2 unit and ZR = x unit.

Also, \triangle FSB\sim \triangle ZDR

Thus, By the property of similarity,

\frac{FS}{ZD} = \frac{FB}{ZR}

⇒ \frac{38}{15.2} = \frac{55}{x}

⇒ x = \frac{55\times 15.2}{38}

⇒ x = \frac{836}{38}

⇒ x = 22

Thus, ZR = 22 unit.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone help me with this ?
3241004551 [841]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Please answer, i don't know how to solve them. please and thank you
kotykmax [81]

Answer:

C or 260.48

Step-by-step explanation:

Find area of both triangles:

20*16/2/2*2=160

Find area of circle;

pi*r*r/2= area of circle

d/2=r

16/2=8

pi*8*8/2 is about 100.53

160+100.53=260.53

7 0
2 years ago
Ms. McClain conducted an experiment
joja [24]

Answer:  1

Step-by-step explanation:

Experimental probability is the actual result you get from an experement.

Theoretical probability is the change that you will get that result.

(for example: flipping a coin, the Theoretical probability is 50/50 but after testing the Experimental probability might be 47/53)

therefore,

1/6 is the Theoretical probability because you are using a six-sided number cube.

for the Theoretical probability and the Experimental probability to be the same, the fraction of the roll must equal 1/6.

1/6 equals 8/48.

therefore, since the numbers 1 and 6 were both rolled 8 times out of 48 they are consistant with the Theoretical probability of 1/6.

6 is not one of the answer choices listed so 1 must be your answer.

 

8 0
3 years ago
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