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Ganezh [65]
3 years ago
10

Which of the following is a highly suspicious financial statement relationship? a. Increased revenues with increased cash flows

b. Increased volume with decreased cost per unit c. Increased inventory with decreased payables d. Increased inventory with increased warehousing costs
Business
1 answer:
Crank3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": Increased inventory with decreased payables.

Explanation:

If in a general ledger there is more inventory but fewer account payables it is a clear indication that there has been a mistake recording the operations of a company or there are activities in the company that might be the result of fraud. Accounts payable represent obligations of the company to a third party because of short-term debt incurred. If there is more inventory, the logical is to have more accounts payable recorded.

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Ricky told his team that he is moving forward with a change to the bonus structure, despite vocal objections from several team m
GarryVolchara [31]

Answer:

Letter E is correct. <em>Dominating.</em>

Explanation:

The dominating conflict-handling style is one that puts your individual interests above the interests of other individuals or your team.

This style is characterized by individuals who rely on forced behavior over another to resolve some existing conflict or to gain some position. It is a style based on profit and loss.

7 0
2 years ago
Bramble Family Importers sold goods to Tung Decorators for $39,000 on November 1, 2020, accepting Tung’s $39,000, 6-month, 6% no
Aliun [14]

Answer:

note receivable       39,000 debit

        sales revenue               39,000 credit

--Nov 1st to record sale of goods to Tung Decorators --

interest receivalbe       390 debit

interest revenue                      390 credit

--Dec 31th adjusitng entry for accrued interest --

cash                       40,170 debit

        note receivable                39,000 credit

        interest receivable                390 credit

        interest revenue                    780 credit

--May 1st collection of the note--

Explanation:

<u>First</u>, we record the sales revenue and we enter the promissory note at his nominal. Interest will be accrued as the time past.

<u>interest for the period Nov 1st - Dec 31th</u>

prncipal x rate x time

we must always have rate adn time in the same metric so we express the mont has fraction of year:

39,000 x 6% x 2/12  = 390

<u>collection of the note</u>

cash procceds: principal + interest

39,000 x (1 + 6% x 6/12)  = 40,170

we write off both receivables, the note and the interest,

and we recognize interest revenue for the difference

40,170 - 39,000 - 390 = 780

6 0
2 years ago
On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0
3 years ago
Shell Enterprise is a soft toy manufacturer. It sells its toys to ToySpot, a company that sells a wide range of toys to the publ
geniusboy [140]

Answer:

ToySpot in this scenario is a soft toy retailer; this means it deals with customers directly and at the same location.

4 0
3 years ago
VWhat is a commodity? A. Something that producers are unable to sell to consumers B. A resource that is available in unlimited q
sdas [7]
The definition of commodity is D. Some examples are gold, silver and copper.
4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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