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Sophie [7]
3 years ago
12

Today only, a table is being sold for $459. This is 68% of its regular price. What was the price yesterday?

Mathematics
2 answers:
DENIUS [597]3 years ago
7 0
X/459 = 68/100
cross multiply
100x = 31,212
divide by 100 on both sides
x = $312.12
lianna [129]3 years ago
5 0
$459+68%

68% of $459 is $312.12

$459+312.12=

$771.12

So the price of the table the day before should be $771.12
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Solve the system of two linear inequalities graphically.
Sladkaya [172]

Answer:

See attachment

Step-by-step explanation:

Isolate y in the first inequality:

2x + 4y < -16\\4y < - 16 -2 x\\y < -4 -\frac{1}{2} x\\y < -\frac{x+8}{2} \\

Now, with both x and y inequalities found, graph it.

7 0
2 years ago
Solve for y using the distributive property 2(y - 14) =8
Paraphin [41]
(y-14)=8/2
y-14=4
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8 0
3 years ago
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How do you Convert feet to metres<br>​
poizon [28]

The conversion of feet to meters is obtained by multiplying 1 foot = 0.3048 meters.

<h3>What are the basic measurements for length?</h3>

Foot, inches, centimeters, and meters are the basic measuring units for length.

<h3>What are the basic conversions?</h3>

The basic conversions are:

1 kilometer = 1000 meters

1 meter = 100 cm

1 cm = 10 mm

1 mm = 0.03937 inch

1 inch = 0.0833 feet.

<h3>How to convert feet to meters?</h3>

According to the international system of units,

1 foot = 12 inches ...(1)

But we know,

1 inch = 25.4 mm, 1 mm = 0.1 cm, and 1 cm = 0.01 m

By substituting all of these in equation (1), we get

1 foot = 12(25.4 mm)

         = 304.8 mm

         = 304.8 (0.1 cm)

         = 30.48 cm

         = 30.48(0.01 m)

         = 0.3048 meters

Therefore, 1 foot = 0.3048 meters.

Learn more about converting measuring units here:

brainly.com/question/174910

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4 0
2 years ago
One of the earliest applications of the Poisson distribution was in analyzing incoming calls to a telephone switchboard. Analyst
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

(a) P (X = 0) = 0.0498.

(b) P (X > 5) = 0.084.

(c) P (X = 3) = 0.09.

(d) P (X ≤ 1) = 0.5578

Step-by-step explanation:

Let <em>X</em> = number of telephone calls.

The average number of calls per minute is, <em>λ</em> = 3.0.

The random variable <em>X</em> follows a Poisson distribution with parameter <em>λ</em> = 3.0.

The probability mass function of a Poisson distribution is:

P(X=x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda}\lambda^{x}}{x!};\ x=0,1,2,3...

(a)

Compute the probability of <em>X</em> = 0 as follows:

P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-3}3^{0}}{0!}=\frac{0.0498\times1}{1}=0.0498

Thus, the  probability that there will be no calls during a one-minute interval is 0.0498.

(b)

If the operator is unable to handle the calls in any given minute, then this implies that the operator receives more than 5 calls in a minute.

Compute the probability of <em>X</em> > 5  as follows:

P (X > 5) = 1 - P (X ≤ 5)

              =1-\sum\limits^{5}_{x=0} { \frac{e^{-3}3^{x}}{x!}} \,\\=1-(0.0498+0.1494+0.2240+0.2240+0.1680+0.1008)\\=1-0.9160\\=0.084

Thus, the probability that the operator will be unable to handle the calls in any one-minute period is 0.084.

(c)

The average number of calls in two minutes is, 2 × 3 = 6.

Compute the value of <em>X</em> = 3 as follows:

<em> </em>P(X=3)=\frac{e^{-6}6^{3}}{3!}=\frac{0.0025\times216}{6}=0.09<em />

Thus, the probability that exactly three calls will arrive in a two-minute interval is 0.09.

(d)

The average number of calls in 30 seconds is, 3 ÷ 2 = 1.5.

Compute the probability of <em>X</em> ≤ 1 as follows:

P (X ≤ 1 ) = P (X = 0) + P (X = 1)

             =\frac{e^{-1.5}1.5^{0}}{0!}+\frac{e^{-1.5}1.5^{1}}{1!}\\=0.2231+0.3347\\=0.5578

Thus, the probability that one or fewer calls will arrive in a 30-second interval is 0.5578.

5 0
3 years ago
Sven participates in his employer’s 401k plan. His annual salary is $52,000. Sven contributes 7.5% of his annual salary. His emp
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

$ 6,500

Step-by-step explanation:

(52,000)(0.075)+(52,000)(0.05) = 3,900 + 2,600

= 6,500

5 0
3 years ago
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