answer is -1 < x < 5
-|x - 2|+ 9 > 6
Rearrange the terms
-|x - 2| > 6 - 9
-|x - 2| > - 3
then divide both sides of the inequality by the co- efficient of variable
|x - 2| < 3
convert the absolute inequality to standard inequality
-3 <x - 2 < 3
separate compound inequalities into system of inequality
{x - 2}> -3
{x - 2 < 3}
Rearrange variable to the left side of the equation
x > -3 + 2
calculate the sum or difference
x > -1
x -2 < 3
Rearrange variable to the left side of the equation
x < 3 + 2
calculate the sum or difference
x < 5
x > -1 and x < 5
Find intersection
-1 < x < 5
Equations and inequalities are both mathematical sentences formed by relating two expressions to each other. In an equation, the two expressions are deemed equal which is shown by the symbol =. Where as in an inequality, the two expressions are not necessarily equal which is indicated by the symbols: >, <, ≤ or ≥.
learn more about inequality equation here :https://brainly.in/question/15934172
SPJ9
X^2+3x=24, halve the linear coefficient, square it, and add it to both sides
In this case (3/2)^2=2.25
x^2+3x+2.25=26.25 now the left side is a perfect square...
(x+1.5)^2=26.25 take the square root of both sides
x+1.5=±√26.25 subtract 1.5 from both sides
x=-1.5±√26.25
x=-1.5-√26.25 and -1.5+√26.25
x≈ -6.62 and 3.62
A. 36 square units
(Please tell me if I’m right in the comments)
Have a wonderful day!
Answer:
See the proof below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."
Solution to the problem
For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables 
with the following distribution:
bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:
From the info given we know that 
We need to proof that 
by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:
The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:
And for the variance of Z we can do this:
![Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29_%20%3D%20E%28N%29%20Var%28X%29%20%2B%20Var%20%28N%29%20%5BE%28X%29%5D%5E2%20)
![Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29%20%3DMpq%20%5Bp%281-p%29%5D%20%2B%20Mq%281-q%29%20p%5E2)
And if we take common factor 
we got:
![Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29%20%3DMpq%20%5B%281-p%29%20%2B%20%281-q%29p%5D%3D%20Mpq%5B1-p%20%2Bp-pq%5D%3D%20Mpq%5B1-pq%5D)
And as we can see then we can conclude that
Answer:
B is correct
Step-by-step explanation:
In order to simplify a square root, look at the number inside the square root. See its factors. For this problem, 100*2=200. The square root of 100 is 10, which you would take outside of the square root. This leaves 2 inside the square root, which cannot be further simplified.
