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2 years ago

15

Can an absolute value function have an inverse function? If so, give an

1 answer:

Musya8 [376]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Let f be a function. If any horizontal line intersects the graph of f more than once, then f does not have an inverse. An absolute value function (without domain restriction) has an inverse that is NOT a function. That's why an absolute value function does not have an inverse function。

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