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kap26 [50]
2 years ago
10

Find the length of a rectangle with a perimeter of 148 inches and width of 36 inches. inches

Mathematics
2 answers:
melamori03 [73]2 years ago
7 0
<h3>Given :-</h3>
  • Width of rectangle = 36 inches
  • Perimeter of rectangle = 148 inches.

\\

<h3>To find:-</h3>
  • Length of rectangle

\\

<h3>Solution:-</h3>

We know:-

\bigstar \boxed{ \rm Perimeter \: of \: rectangle = 2(length + width)}

\\

So:-

\\

\dashrightarrow \sf 148 = 2(length + 36) \\

\\

\dashrightarrow \sf 148 = 2(length) + 2(36) \\

\\

\dashrightarrow \sf 148 = 2(length) + 2 \times 36 \\

\\

\dashrightarrow \sf 148 = 2(length) + 72 \\

\\

\dashrightarrow \sf 148 = 2length + 72 \\

\\

\dashrightarrow \sf 148  - 72= 2length  \\

\\

\dashrightarrow \sf76= 2length  \\

\\

\dashrightarrow \sf 2length  = 76 \\

\\

\dashrightarrow \sf length  = \dfrac{76}{2}  \\

\\

\dashrightarrow \sf length  = \cancel \dfrac{76}{2}  \\

\\

\dashrightarrow \bf length  = 38 \: inches

Alexeev081 [22]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Perimeter of rectangle = 2L + 2W

2L + 2 * 36 = 148

2L = 148 - 72

2L = 76

L = 38 inches

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MrRissso [65]

Answer:

23.6°

Step-by-step explanation:

In this question we have to use some trigonometry to work out angle XVW. Since we are working out angles all of the trigonometric functions will have to be to the ⁻¹. The first thing we need to identify is will formula will we use out of the following:

Sin⁻¹ = Opposite ÷ Hypotenuse

Tan⁻¹ = Opposite ÷ Adjacent

Cos⁻¹ = Adjacent ÷ Hypotenuse

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10 = Hypotenuse

4 = Opposite

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We know which formula to use because the length won't be in the triangle for example we will be using the Sin triangle because we don't have an adjacent. If we don't have an adjacent then the other formula's won't work.

Now we substitute in the values to find the value of angle XVW

Sin⁻¹ = Opposite ÷ Hypotenuse

Sin⁻¹ = 4 ÷ 10

The value of angle XVW is 23.57817848

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2 years ago
Need help please ASAP ! The options for the first blank is A.close B.open price C.volume the options for second blank is A.day B
Murljashka [212]
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6 0
3 years ago
3. If ‘A’ can finish a work in ‘n’ days then part of work finished in 1 day is: (a) 1 – n
zaharov [31]

Answer:

If ‘A’ can finish a work in ‘n’ days then part of work finished in 1 day

will be \frac{1}{n}.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question, it is clear that

  • If ‘A’ can finish a work in ‘n’ days, then
  • we have to determine the part of work finished in 1 day.

So

let 'n' be the number of days A takes to complete the whole work

Let the whole job be denoted as '1'

Thus, the part of work finished in 1 day will be:

                      \:\frac{Total\:work}{Time\:taken\:by\:A\:to\:complete\:the\:work}\:=\frac{1}{n}

Therefore, If ‘A’ can finish a work in ‘n’ days then part of work finished in 1 day will be \frac{1}{n}.

                             

Keywords: work, word problem

Learn more about word problem form brainly.com/question/12419898

#learnwithBrainly

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3 years ago
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MrRa [10]

Answer:

SAS

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope I helped!!

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