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3 years ago

How might the inability to provide fringe benefits affect a sole proprietors ability to run a business

1 answer:

4 0

The inability of sole proprietors to provide fringe benefits to their employees can affect the service rendered to customers. Without fringe benefits, the employer will not be able to attract quality applicants for his business. He may have to settle for less qualified staff who may not be able to provide clients with excellent service.

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Assume the spot rate of the British pound is $1.73. The expected spot rate 1 year from now is assumed to be $1.66. What percenta

Alexandra [31]

Answer:

The correct answer is 4.05%.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Spot rate = $1.73

Expected spot rate after 1 year = $1.66

So, we can calculate the depreciation percentage by using the following formula:

Expected Depreciation = (Expected spot rate after 1 year - Spot rate) / Spot rate

So, by putting the value

= ($1.66 – $1.73) / $1.73

= - $0.07 / $1.73

= - 4.05%

Hence, the depreciation percentage is 4.05%.

8 0

3 years ago

I need help..................

Anastaziya [24]

Commuting - Traveling to get to work
Telecommutting - A form of flexplace...
Flextime - Flexibility in when you work
Flexplace - Flexibility in where you work

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Chandler Kumar owns two antique stores. One is in an upscale neighborhood, and its merchandise is artfully arranged and priced t

Sav [38]

Answer: targeting

Explanation: In simple words, targeting strategies refers to the strategy involving the selection of potential customers and product that will be offered to those customers.

In the given case, Chandler is doing a minor change in the presentation of the goods offered so that he can target different type of customers. In the first store he is trying to target the high value customers by arranging the goods in a sophisticated manner and in the second one he is targeting the common customer.

Hence from the above we can conclude that Kumar is using different targeting strategies.

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

When a person owes more on an item (like a car or house) than it is worth, the person is said to be _________ on the loan. secur

nikklg [1K]

When a person owes more on an item (like a car or house) than it is worth, the person is said to be <u>upside down</u> on the loan.

<h3><u>Describe an upside-down loan.</u></h3>

You have an upside-down auto loan if you owe more money than the car is truly worth. You may need to make additional payments or modify your insurance coverage in order to prevent being upside-down on your loan or, at the very least, to shorten the amount of time you are in this perilous financial situation.

When you owe more on a car loan than the vehicle is worth, the loan is considered upside-down. If your car is worth $12,000 but your loan total is $15,000, for instance, your loan would be in the negative. You have $3,000 in negative equity in this situation.

It's not always a problem to have an outstanding auto loan. If you don't intend to sell your car, you can make loan payments until the balance is paid off. It won't affect the way you communicate with your lender.

Learn more about upside-down loans with the help of the given link:

brainly.com/question/24173549

#SPJ4

6 0

2 years ago

Serotta Corporation is planning to issue bonds with a face value of $450,000 and a coupon rate of 16 percent. The bonds mature i

Brrunno [24]

Answer:

1. Dr Cash 481,588.61

Cr Bonds payable 450,000

Cr Premium on bonds payable 31,588.61

2. March 31

Dr Interest expense 14,447.66

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,552.34

Cr Cash 18,000

June 30

Dr Interest expense 14,341.09

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,658.91

Cr Cash 18,000

September 30

Dr Interest expense 14,231.32

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,768.68

Cr Cash 18,000

December 31

Dr Interest expense 14,118.26

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,881.74

Cr Cash 18,000

3. carrying value = $466,726.94

Explanation:

face value = $450,000

maturity = 2 years x 4 = 8 periods

coupon rate = 16% / 4 = 4%

coupon = $18,000

YTM = 12% / 4 = 3%

using a financial calculator, the PV of the bonds = $481,588.61

amortization first coupon = ($481,588.61 x 3%) - $18,000 = $3,552.34

Dr Interest expense 14,447.66

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,552.34

Cr Cash 18,000

amortization second coupon = ($478,036.27 x 3%) - $18,000 = $3,658.91

Dr Interest expense 14,341.09

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,658.91

Cr Cash 18,000

amortization third coupon = ($474,377.36 x 3%) - $18,000 = $3,768.68

Dr Interest expense 14,231.32

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,768.68

Cr Cash 18,000

amortization fourth coupon = ($470,608.68 x 3%) - $18,000 = $3,881.74

Dr Interest expense 14,118.26

Dr Premium on bonds payable 3,881.74

Cr Cash 18,000

5 0

3 years ago