SOLUTION
From the question, we are told that y varies inversely as x
This is mathematically written as
Now, we will remove the proportionality sign and replace it with equal to sign =
If we do this, we will intoduce a constant k
So we have the formula
We will substitute the values of x for 10 and y for 8 into the formula to get k, we have
Now, we will substitute k for 80 back into the formula to get the inverse function, we have
Hence the answer is option C
All i know is that the equation of a straight line is y=mx+c .......where m= gradient and c= the y intercept
The probability is 3/6 or 0.5 or 1/2.
Answer:
The improper fraction 8/5 can be changed to the mixed number 1 3/5 by dividing the numerator (8) by the denominator (5). This gives a quotient of 1 and a remainder of 3.
Step-by-step explanation:
Proof by induction
Base case:
n=1: 1*2*3=6 is obviously divisible by six.
Assumption: For every n>1 n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.
For n+1:
(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)=
(n(n+1)(n+2)+3(n+1)(n+2))
We have assumed that n(n+1)(n+2) is divisble by 6.
We now only need to prove that 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.
If 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6, then (n+1)(n+2) must be divisible by 2.
The "cool" part about this proof.
Since n is a natural number greater than 1 we can say the following:
If n is an odd number, then n+1 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.
If n is an even number" then n+2 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.
Therefore by using the method of mathematical induction we proved that for every natural number n, n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6. QED.
