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andre [41]
3 years ago
11

1000000*1000000 i am confused lol

Mathematics
2 answers:
bearhunter [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1e+12 is the answer lol dont worry bout it

Sophie [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1,000,000,000,000 or 10^{12}

Step-by-step explanation:

1,000,000*1,000,000 = 1,000,000,000,000 or 10^{12}

Hope this helps!

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The elevation of Mount Everest is 29028 feet . The elevation of the dead sea is - 485 feet. What is th difference in the elevati
LUCKY_DIMON [66]
Difference = subtract
29028-(-485) if you subtract a negative the sign changes to positive and the subtraction changes to addition so ur answer is 29513
4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Four points are placed on a circle. How many segments will it take to connect each point to every other point?
alexandr1967 [171]

Answer:

6 segments are required to connect each point to every other point.

Step-by-step explanation:

If four points are placed on a circle.Then as we know the segment is a line that join two points.

Now as we are given four points on the circle.

  • so we will firstly start with the first point; the first point requires 3 segments to connect to the remaining three points.
  • Next second point will just require 2 segments to connect to the two points as it is already connected to the first point.
  • similarly third point requires just one segment to connect to the last point as it is already connected to first and second point as done above.
  • and hence by the above three steps the fourth point is connected to all the points.

Hence, 6 segments are required to connect each point to every other point.

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following is an example of a capital resource? coal machinery time horse
Fantom [35]

Answer:

machinery is a capital resource

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Prove that:
Likurg_2 [28]

Step-by-step explanation:

16⁴ - 2¹³ - 4⁵

= 2¹⁶ - 2¹³ - 2¹⁰

= 2¹⁰(2⁶ - 2³ - 1)

= 2¹⁰(64 - 8 - 1)

= 2¹⁰ * 55

= 2¹⁰ * 5 * 11.

Since it contains 11 in its prime factorization, it is divisible by 11. (Proven)

3 0
3 years ago
Plssssss help me with this math pls
sdas [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is A) 4/663.

Step-by-step explanation:

First you find the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards. Since there are 4 queens(the queen of diamond, the queen of hearts, the queen of spades, and the queen of clubs) in a deck of 52 cards, the  probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards is 4/52.

Next you find the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards(since you did not replace the first card you drew). Since there are 4 kings(the king of diamond, the king of hearts, the king of spades, and the king  of clubs) in a deck of cards, the  probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards is 4/51.

Then you multiply the two probabilities to determine the probability of drawing a queen then a king. So,

4/52 x 4/51 =

4 x 4/52 x 51 =

16/2652

Finally, simplify the fraction. The greatest number that can go into both the numerator and denominator is 4. So divide both the numerator and denominator by 4. When you do this, you get the following:

16 divided by 4 = 4 as the numerator and

2652 divided by 4 = 663 as denominator.

So, the final answer is 4/663.

4 0
4 years ago
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