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ladessa [460]
2 years ago
8

X(x – 4) and x2 - 4x define the same function.

Mathematics
1 answer:
ycow [4]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Yes, because x(x -4) is equivalent to x^2-4x

Step-by-step explanation:

x(x -4) and x^2-4x

x(x -4) = x^2 - 4x

Hope this helps!

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