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NeTakaya
2 years ago
7

What is “2 1/2 x 3 1/3”

Mathematics
2 answers:
lyudmila [28]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

25/3 or 8 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

To find this solution, we first need to change the mixed numbers into improper fractions so we can solve correctly!

2 1/2 as a improper fraction is 5/2 and 3 1/3 as a improper fraction is 10/3

Now we can directly multiply

Multiply the two numerators together which will get us to 50

Multiply the two denominators together which will get us to 6

Now our fraction is 50/6

But… we can simplify this!

Divide 50 by 2 and 6 by 2 to reduce the fraction

This will get us to our final answer of…

25/3 or 8 1/3

Hope this helps, and please award brainliest if possible!

lesya692 [45]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The answer is 8.3 bar notation.

Step-by-step explanation:

2 1/2 into improper is 5/2

3 1/3 into improper is 10/3

Now Multiply

5/2 x 10/3 is 300/36

Now Reduce.

25/3 = 8.3 bar notation

Mark Brainliest!

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a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

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Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

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While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

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And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

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As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

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Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

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- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

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p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

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Learn more about probabilities:

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#LearnwithBrainly

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