Answer:
Ans. The equilibrium rate of return on a 1-year Treasury bond is 6.65% (please check the explanation)
Explanation:
Hi, well, this type of bonds exist so people can avoid the time value of money risk, in other words, to keep money save from inflation and provide a risk free return at the same time. From a part of the text I can tell that the person who wrote it wanted to add up the risk free rate and the inflation rate, that is 3.05%+3.60% =6.65%.
This is why I wrote this answer, but the truth is that since they are both effective rates (risk free rate and inflation), they need to be add as effective rates, that is:
Therefore
So the real equilibrium rate of return is 6.76%, but for the sake of the question, I wrote 6.65%.
Best of luck.
When a company exchanges 200 shares of stock worth $20 each for 100 shares worth $40 each, they are using reverse stock split.
A reverse stock split is a corporate action in which a firm or a company reduces the number of shares it has outstanding by a set multiple. For example, if a company announces a reverse stock split of 1:50, this means that once the split occurs investors will receive one share for every 100 shares they own.
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.
Explanation
You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.
Answer:
Risk free interest rate is 5%
Y is 15.5% at a Beta of 1.5
X is 0.29 when Y is 7%
Explanation:
Risk free interest is 0.05 which 5% as given in the equation
The average expected return is given by Y
Y=0.05+0.07X
Since Beta is the same as X, when equals 1.5,Y is calculated thus
Y=0.05+0.07(1.5)
Y=0.05+0.105
Y=0.155
Y=15.5%
The value of Beta at an average return of 7% is computed thus:
7%=0.05+0.07X
where X is the unknown
0.07=0.05+0.07X
0.07-0.05=0.07X
0.02=0.07X
X=0.02/0.07
X=0.29
The scenario illustrates that the Beta, which is the risk of investment and the Y , the expected average return are positively correlated.
Answer: B. The investor has a short-term capital loss of $20,000.
Explanation:
A short-term loss occurs when a deficit is realized when there's a sale of an asset which has been held by the person for a period of one year or less.
In this case, since the security was worthless, it's a loss and was also help for six months which is less than one year, then it's a short term capital loss.
Therefore, the correct option is B
