Step-by-step explanation:
your expression for the dependence of r on S is correct
There are two blue marbles so you have a 2/8 probability of drawing a blue marble on each draw since the marble is replaced after the first draw. 2/8 can be simplified to be 1/4 and then converted to be 0.25 per draw. 0.25 plus 0.25 equals 0.5. Since we are dealing with percentages multiply 0.5 x 100 which equals 50. Now take 50 and divided by the total number of marbles in the bag which is 8. 50 divided by 8 equals 6.25. So it would be about 6%.
Answer:
i. LM || NO (converse alternate interior angle theorem)
ii. <1 ≅ <2 (alternate interior angle theorem)
Step-by-step explanation:
Two or more lines are said to be parallel if they do not meet when extended, even till infinity.
Alternate angles are said to be equal in measure.
Given that;
<1 ≅ < 3,
Since <2 ≅ <3 (alternate interior angle theorem)
Then,
<1 ≅ <2 (transitive property)
Also,
<1 ≅ <2 (alternate interior angle theorem)
Therefore since <1 ≅ <2, thus;
LM || NO (converse alternate interior angle theorem)
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Can you upload another picture?
Point of Y intercept is (0,4)
Y1-Y2=m(X1-X2)
Plug in x,y into X2, Y2 m=slope
y-4=2(x-0)
y-4=2x
y=2x+4
Table
Plug in for x and y
x. y
0. 4
1. 6
2. 8
