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kipiarov [429]
2 years ago
7

Why dose math have to be so hard

Mathematics
2 answers:
Airida [17]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

because i dont even know need help im a tutor ill help u fr

Step-by-step explanation:

mamaluj [8]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Imagine how hard it was to create it all.

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
1. determine if the functions are inverse functions
kirill115 [55]

Answer:

<u>Question 1</u>

The function f(x) = x + 6 is one-to-one, so it does have an inverse.

The inverse of +6 is -6, so f^{-1}(x)=x-6

Therefore, g(x) is the inverse of f(x).

<u>Question 2</u>

The function f(x) = -3x -9 is one-to-one, so it does have an inverse.

To find the inverse, replace f(x) with y:

\implies y = -3x -9

Rearrange the equation to make x the subject:

\implies y+9= -3x

\implies x=-\dfrac13(y+9)

\implies x=-\dfrac13y-3

Replace x with f^{-1}(x) and y with x:

\implies f^{-1}(x)=-\dfrac13x-3

Therefore, g(x) is the inverse of f(x).

5 0
2 years ago
The Slow Ball Challenge or The Fast Ball Challenge.
cupoosta [38]

Answer:

Fast ball challenge

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Slow Ball Challenge

Pitches = 7

P(Hit) = 80\%

Win = \$60

Lost = \$10

Fast Ball Challenge

Pitches = 3

P(Hit) = 70\%

Win = \$60

Lost = \$10

Required

Which should he choose?

To do this, we simply calculate the expected earnings of both.

Considering the slow ball challenge

First, we calculate the binomial probability that he hits all 7 pitches

P(x) =^nC_x * p^x * (1 - p)^{n - x}

Where

n = 7 --- pitches

x = 7 --- all hits

p = 80\% = 0.80 --- probability of hit

So, we have:

P(x) =^nC_x * p^x * (1 - p)^{n - x}

P(7) =^7C_7 * 0.80^7 * (1 - 0.80)^{7 - 7}

P(7) =1 * 0.80^7 * (1 - 0.80)^0

P(7) =1 * 0.80^7 * 0.20^0

Using a calculator:

P(7) =0.2097152 --- This is the probability that he wins

i.e.

P(Win) =0.2097152

The probability that he lose is:

P(Lose) = 1 - P(Win) ---- Complement rule

P(Lose) = 1 -0.2097152

P(Lose) = 0.7902848

The expected value is then calculated as:

Expected = P(Win) * Win + P(Lose) * Lose

Expected = 0.2097152 * \$60 + 0.7902848 * \$10

Using a calculator, we have:

Expected = \$20.48576

Considering the fast ball challenge

First, we calculate the binomial probability that he hits all 3 pitches

P(x) =^nC_x * p^x * (1 - p)^{n - x}

Where

n = 3 --- pitches

x = 3 --- all hits

p = 70\% = 0.70 --- probability of hit

So, we have:

P(3) =^3C_3 * 0.70^3 * (1 - 0.70)^{3 - 3}

P(3) =1 * 0.70^3 * (1 - 0.70)^0

P(3) =1 * 0.70^3 * 0.30^0

Using a calculator:

P(3) =0.343 --- This is the probability that he wins

i.e.

P(Win) =0.343

The probability that he lose is:

P(Lose) = 1 - P(Win) ---- Complement rule

P(Lose) = 1 - 0.343

P(Lose) = 0.657

The expected value is then calculated as:

Expected = P(Win) * Win + P(Lose) * Lose

Expected = 0.343 * \$60 + 0.657 * \$10

Using a calculator, we have:

Expected = \$27.15

So, we have:

Expected = \$20.48576 -- Slow ball

Expected = \$27.15 --- Fast ball

<em>The expected earnings of the fast ball challenge is greater than that of the slow ball. Hence, he should choose the fast ball challenge.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
Find the coordinates of the point (x,y,z) on the planez=4x+3y+1 which is closest to the origin.
Nataliya [291]
Given plane &Pi; : f(x,y,z) = 4x+3y-z = -1
Need to find point P on &Pi;  that is closest to the origin O=(0,0,0).

Solution:
First step: check if O is on the plane &Pi; : f(0,0,0)=0 &ne; -1 => O is not on &Pi;
Next:
We know that the required point must lie on the normal vector <4,3,-1> passing through the origin, i.e. 
P=(0,0,0)+k<4,3,-1> = (4k,3k,-k)
For P to lie on plane &Pi; , it must satisfy
4(4k)+3(3k)-(-k)=-1
Solving for k
k=-1/26
=>
Point P is (4k,3k,-k) = (-4/26, -3/26, 1/26) = (-2/13, -3/26, 1/26)
because P is on the normal vector originating from the origin, and it satisfies the equation of plane &Pi;
Answer: P(-2/13, -3/26, 1/26) is the point on &Pi; closest to the origin.

8 0
2 years ago
Prove the statement holds for all positive integers:<br><br> 2 + 4 + 6 + ... + 2n = n² + n
crimeas [40]

Proving a relation for all natural numbers involves proving it for n = 1 and showing that it holds for n + 1 if it is assumed that it is true for any n.

The relation 2+4+6+...+2n = n^2+n has to be proved.

If n = 1, the right hand side is equal to 2*1 = 2 and the left hand side is equal to 1^1 + 1 = 1 + 1 = 2

Assume that the relation holds for any value of n.

2 + 4 + 6 + ... + 2n + 2(n+1) = n^2 + n + 2(n + 1)

= n^2 + n + 2n + 2

= n^2 + 2n + 1 + n + 1

= (n + 1)^2 + (n + 1)

This shows that the given relation is true for n = 1 and if it is assumed to be true for n it is also true for n + 1.

<span>By mathematical induction the relation is true for any value of n.</span>

6 0
3 years ago
How many seconds are in 45 minutes?
fgiga [73]
45 minutes equal to 2700 seconds.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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