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solong [7]
3 years ago
11

(50 POINTS)(WILL GIVE BRAINYEST)(STEP BY STEP ANSWER PLS) it would be very much appreciated if someone could help me on this pro

blem the question in in the screenshot, thanks in advance :D

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lilit [14]3 years ago
8 0
50% = $20
25% = $10
40+10 = $50
original price = $50
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The answer would be no
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Write the expression <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%5E4-6x%5E2%2B10" id="TexFormula1" title="x^4-6x^2+10" alt="x^4-6x^2+10"
dolphi86 [110]

Answer: 35_+2sqrt314


Step-by-step explanation:


8 0
4 years ago
What's the equation for "ten times the sum of half a number and 6 is 8
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]
10(.5 + 6)=8
 
If you need me to explain, let me know.
5 0
3 years ago
I will mark brainliest IF CORRECT
umka2103 [35]

Answer:

1 - (π/6) - (√3/4)

Step-by-step explanation:

First, calculate the area of ABCD. That's just 1*1 = 1 un^{2}

Then, we are told that arcs BD and AC are circular, meaning they are portions of a circle. Therefore, let's redraw this image a little. Look below for the image.

Essentially, what I've done is created an equilateral triangle and two sectors. You may be wondering why the triangle is equilateral. Well, we firstly know it's isosceles because the two original arcs are circular and congruent. Their overlap creates two congruent lines that can be extend from point M to the vertices A and D. These two lines also happen to be radii of the quarter circles because the two sectors have AM AND AD as radii. AM and AD = 1, so AMD is an equilateral triangle.

Draw altitude OD. This is a right angle. Since equilateral triangles are also isosceles triangles, and isosceles triangles have the property of sharing the median to base and altitude to base, we can say that OD = \frac{1}{2} AD = \frac{1}{2}. MD = 1, so this triangle is a 30-60-90 triangle. Why? This is because of the 30º angle converse theorem. The shorter leg is half of the hypotenuse MD, so <OMD is a 30º angle, making <ODM a 60º angle and inevitably <MDC a 30º angle (because <D is a right angle) and <ABM as well because the two sectors are congruent.

Because m<ABM = m<MDC = 30º, these two sectors are 30/360 of the individual circles or 1/12 of the original circles, which have areas of π (because 1^2*π = π). Each is 1/12π, combined they are 1/6π.

The area of the equilateral triangle is √3/8. This is because MO can be calculated, using the 30-60-90 ratios, to be √3/2. (1 * √3/2)/2 = (√3/2)/2 = √3/4; this uses the area of a triangle. Now, time to calculate the shaded area.

The area of the square is 1, the area of the sectors π/6, and the equilateral triangle √3/4. Subtract the equilateral triangle and sectors' areas from the area of the square to be left with the remaining shaded part. 1-(π/6)-(√3/4) is your final answer. To put that a little more cleanly below in the image.

Hope this helps, have a great day.

3 0
2 years ago
Using the side-splitter theorem, Daniel wrote a proportion for the segments formed by line segment DE. What is EC?
AfilCa [17]
We manipulate the given equation in order to solve for EC. We do this by cross multiplying. 
The resulting equation will be:
EC = (4 x 3)/5
EC = 12/5 = 2.4

Additionally, the side-splitter theorem works for this problem since DE and AC are parallel to each other, therefore splitting the remaining two sides into proportional segments.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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