1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Airida [17]
2 years ago
14

If you want to convert quarts to cups, should you multiply or divide?

Mathematics
2 answers:
bonufazy [111]2 years ago
4 0
<h3>Answer:  Multiply by 4</h3>

This is because 1 quart = 4 cups

So if you had say 3 quarts, then it converts to 3*4 = 12 cups.

Ratling [72]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

multiply.

Step-by-step explanation:

To make a quart measurement into a cup measurement, multiply the volume by the conversion ratio.

The volume of cups is the same to the quarts multiplied by four.

Hope this helps <3

Byeeeeeeeeeee.

You might be interested in
How are multiplacation and division related 6×blanke=24
valkas [14]
4 would be the answer for this questions
4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In a casino, the chance of winning a certain game is 14.5%. If you play the game 20 times, what’s your best estimate for the num
EleoNora [17]
Expected number of wins=number of plays times the probability of winning

w=20(14.5/100)

w=20(0.145)

w=2.9

w≈3 

So you would expect to win 3 times out of 20 attempts (rounded to the nearest whole number of wins)
7 0
4 years ago
Alex determines that there are 5 chocolate candies per cubic inch. If there are 150 chocolate candies in a jar, what is the volu
AlekseyPX
The answer is 30 cubic inches.

If <span>5 chocolate candies are in 1 cubic inch, 150 </span><span>chocolate candies will be in x cubic inches:
</span>5 chocolate candies : 1 cubic inch = 150 chocolate candies : x<span> cubic inches
</span>5 : 1 = 150 : x
5 = 150 : x
x = 150 : 5
x = 30

So, if <span>150 chocolate candies are in a jar, the volume of the jar is 30 cubic inches.</span>
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Help i have no idea how to do this
Brums [2.3K]

Answer: 80

Step-by-step explanation: it is 80

6 0
3 years ago
Are 3 and 8 prime to each other
MAVERICK [17]

Remark

Yes even though 8 is not a prime number. There is nothing that will divide into 3 or 8 the will give a whole number answer when the division is complete.

That means that 3 and 8 are prime to each other in base 10.

3 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • lucas threw a ball 38 feet zola threw a ball 13 feet farther than lucas which equation shows the length of zola throw
    12·1 answer
  • If two angles are supplementary to the same angles, then
    9·2 answers
  • A part of a line that starts at one endpoint and extends forever in one direction is a
    7·2 answers
  • What is the completely simplified equivalent of 2/(5+i)?
    5·1 answer
  • GEOMETRY
    10·1 answer
  • Which is the better deal 10 pens for 8.99 or 25 pens for 19.75
    6·1 answer
  • There are 12 pieces of fruit in a bowl and 3 of them are apples. What percentage of the pieces of fruit in the bowl are apples?
    6·1 answer
  • Please answer see the image
    11·1 answer
  • Find the average rate of change of g(x) = 1x3 + 2 from x =<br> 1 to x = 4
    11·1 answer
  • A bag contains 100 marbles which are red, green, and blue. Suppose a student randomly selects a marble without looking, records
    14·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!