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netineya [11]
3 years ago
8

Windhoek Mines, Ltd., of Namibia, is contemplating the purchase of equipment to exploit a mineral deposit on land to which the c

ompany has mineral rights. An engineering and cost analysis has been made, and it is expected that the following cash flows would be associated with opening and operating a mine in the area:
Cost of new equipment and timbers $310,000
Working capital required $190,000
Annual net cash receipts $125,000
Cost to construct new roads in year three $58,000
Salvage value of equipment in four years $83,000
Receipts from sales of ore, less out-of-pocket costs for salaries, utilities, insurance, and so forth. The mineral deposit would be exhausted after four years of mining. At that point, the working capital would be released for reinvestment elsewhere. The company's required rate of return is 20%.
Required:
A. Determine the net present value of the proposed mining project.
B. Should the project be accepted?
1. Yes.
2. No.
Business
1 answer:
geniusboy [140]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

NPV = -$78,318

Explanation:

cash flow 0 = -$310,000 - $190,000 = -$500,000

cash flow 1 = $125,000

cash flow 2 = $125,000

cash flow 3 = $125,000 - $58,000 = $67,000

cash flow 4 = $125,000 + $83,000 + $190,000 = $398,000

NPV = -$500,000 + $125,000/1.2 + $125,000/1.2² + $67,000/1.2³ + $398,000/1.2⁴ = -$78,318

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Answer:

1.What is the dividend for the 1st year?

$2.67

2.What is the dividend for the 2nd year?

$3.31

3.What is the dividend for the 3rd year?

$3.90

4.What is the dividend for the 4th year?

$4.60

5.What is the dividend for the 5th year?

$5.43

6.Compute the present value of these dividends if the required rate of return is 14 percent.

1. $2.34

2. $2.54

3. $2.63

4. $2.73

5. $2.82

Explanation:

Last Dividend paid = $2.15

Growth rate:

First two years = 24%

Following three years = 18%

FV of Dividend = PV ( 1 + g )^n

1.

Dividend for the 1st year = $2.15 x ( 1 + 24% )^1 = $2.15 x ( 1 + 0.24 )^1 = $2.15 x ( 1.24 )^1 = $2.67

2.

Dividend for the 2nd year = $2.15 x ( 1 + 24% )^2 = $2.15 x ( 1 + 0.24 )^2 = $2.15 x ( 1.24 )^2 = $3.31

3.

Dividend for the 3rd year = $3.31 x ( 1 + 18% )^1 = $3.31 x ( 1 + 0.18 )^1 = $3.31 x ( 1.18 )^1 = $3.90

4.

Dividend for the 4th year = $3.31 x ( 1 + 18% )^2 = $3.31 x ( 1 + 0.18 )^2 = $3.31 x ( 1.18 )^2 = $4.60

5.

Dividend for the 5th year = $3.31 x ( 1 + 18% )^3 = $3.31 x ( 1 + 0.18 )^3 = $3.31 x ( 1.18 )^3 = $5.43

6.The present value of these dividends

Present value of dividends can be calculated by following formula:

PV  = FV / ( 1 + r )^n

FV = Dividend for the year

r = rate of return = 14%

n = number of years

1.      PV = $2.98 / ( 1 + 0.14 )^1 = $2.98 / ( 1.14 )^1 = $2.98 / 1.14 = $2.34

2.      PV = $3.31 / ( 1 + 0.14 )^2 = $3.31 / ( 1.14 )^2 = $3.31 / 1.2996 = $2.54

3.      PV = $3.90 / ( 1 + 0.14 )^3 = $3.90 / ( 1.14 )^3 = $3.90 / 1.481544 = $2.63

4.      PV = $4.60 / ( 1 + 0.14 )^4 = $4.60 / ( 1.14 )^4 = $4.60 / 1.68896 = $2.73

5.      PV = $5.43 / ( 1 + 0.14 )^5 = $5.43 / ( 1.14 )^5 = $5.43 / 1.925416 = $2.82

5 0
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Pension Plan Entries Yuri Co. operates a chain of gift shops. The company maintains a defined contribution pension plan for its
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Answer:

December 31

Dr Pension expense $182,100

Cr Unfunded pension Liabiltiy $182,100

January 15

Dr Unfunded pension Liabiltiy $182,100

Cr Cash $182,100

Explanation:

Preparation of the entry to record the accrued pension liability payment to the funding agent on January 15

December 31

Dr Pension expense $182,100

Cr Unfunded pension Liabiltiy $182,100

(Being to record quarterly pension Liabiltiy)

January 15

Dr Unfunded pension Liabiltiy $182,100

Cr Cash $182,100

( Being to record the accrued pension liability payment to the funding agent)

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Consider a corporate bond with a $1000 face value, 8% coupon with semiannual coupon payments, 7 years until maturity, and a YTM
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Answer:

$961.42

Explanation:

firstly, we calculate the clean clean price below:

FV= 1,000

PMT= 40 (80 / 2)

I= 4.5 (9 / 2)

N= 14 (7 × 2)

Thus, PV= 948.89

Accrued Interest = coupon × (days since last payment/days in current coupon period)= 40 × (57 / 182) = 12.53

conclusively, dirty price = 948.89 + 12.53 = 961.42

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Answer:

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coldgirl [10]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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