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tangare [24]
2 years ago
14

Answer 11-12 it’s ok if your don’t no one of them. Please do at least one. Thanks.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Naddika [18.5K]2 years ago
3 0

[11]

Equation: 180° - 75°

Measure: 105°

      A straight line has an angle measurement of 180°. Since we have GFB, 75°, we can find EFB this way.

[12]

Equation: 90° - 40°

Measure: 50°

      The little box in the angle shows that it is equal to 90°. Since they give us HGB, 40°, we can solve for EFB using this information.

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A classroom has the dimensions shown the dimensions are the length which is 9.1 the width which is 10.3 and the height which is
melisa1 [442]
Area is 93.73

Volume is 299.36

Area of all 4 walls is 116.48
6 0
3 years ago
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
son4ous [18]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

5 0
3 years ago
Please help! this is timed!
Scilla [17]

Answer: -8-10

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How did these steps worked out ?​
Sergeeva-Olga [200]
The steps i took into doing these problems did very well for me
8 0
3 years ago
One fourth of marked price of a watch is given as discount. What is the discount percent​
kumpel [21]

Answer:

pretty sure its 25%

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 is the same as 0.25 which is also the same as 25%

4 0
3 years ago
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