Answer:
482 km
63.94 degrees
Step-by-step explanation:
to solve this question we will use the cosine rule. For starters, draw your diagram. From point A, up north is 500km and 060 from there, another 300. If you join the point from the road junction back to the starting point, yoou have a triangle.
Cosine rule states that
C = 
where both A and B are the given distances, 500 and 300 respectively, C is the 3rd distance we're looking for and c is the given angle, 060
solving now, we have
C = 
C = ![\sqrt{250000 + 90000 - [215000 cos(60) }]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Csqrt%7B250000%20%2B%2090000%20-%20%5B215000%20%20%20cos%2860%29%20%20%7D%5D)
C = ![\sqrt{340000 - [215000 * 0.5 }]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Csqrt%7B340000%20-%20%5B215000%20%2A%200.5%20%20%7D%5D)
C = ![\sqrt{340000 - [107500 }]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Csqrt%7B340000%20-%20%5B107500%20%20%7D%5D)
C =
C = 482 km
The bearing can be gotten by using the Sine Rule.
= 
sina/500 = sin60/482
482 sina = 500 sin60
sina = 
sina = 0.8983
a = sin^-1(0.8983)
a = 63.94 degrees
Answer:
a. The Mexican Airline offers a better deal for 9 students to travel.
b. 10 students
Step-by-step explanation:
a. The Mexican Air airline offers a round trip airfare of $250 per person.
So, for 9 students the fare will be total $(250 × 9) = $2250
Now, the Fiesta airline offers a round trip airfare of $150 per person if the club agrees to pay a one-time group rate processing fee of $1000.
So, for 9 students the total fare will be = $[1000 + (150 × 9)] =$2350.
Therefore, the Mexican Airline offers a better deal for 9 students to travel. (Answer)
b. Let for x students both the airline offers the same total costs.
Then we can write
250x = 1000 + 150x {From the conditions given}
⇒ 100x = 1000
⇒ x = 10
So, if the number of students is 10, then only both the airlines will take same fare. (Answer)
The area is 14! hope this helps
Answer:
-2 ≤ x ≤ 6
Step-by-step explanation:
The first is ...
6 ≥ x
and it can also be written as ...
x ≤ 6
The second is
-2 ≤ x
The two inequalities can be combined into one compound inequality:
-2 ≤ x ≤ 6
_____
<em>Comment on this answer</em>
I prefer the answer in this form because it puts the parts of the expression in the same order that they appear on a number line. It can also be written as ...
6 ≥ x ≥ -2
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
y=-1
because when y = - 1,
it is an equation of x axis.. hence it will parallel to x axis....
