I think the topic is likely to be greek mythology.
- Why do you think Shakespeare shows Macbeth taken in by the witches prophecy?
Firstly, Shakespeare makes a point in Macbeth's confidence, due to his full trust in the witches' prophecy he believed that he was invencible. So, when he sees that he can actually be defeated this is something that the audience is expecting to see, so it adds to the dramatic effect of the play. Secondly, I believe that tragic heroes, no matter what they do, we always feel some sort of sympathy for them. In this case, I believe that Shakespeare is trying to show his weakness (he trusted someone he shouldn't, he was way too confident, all of this was the result of his ambition that completely blinded his judgement)
- What might Shakespeare be applying by Macbeth's character?
As it has been previously stated, Shakespeare was trying to show Macbeth that he placed his trust in the wrong place (this had also a didactic purpose for the audience). Moreover, I believe that this is when his eyes are unfolded, ambition falls, and he realized that he was a puppet of the witches. He didn't question her words and he did everything they expected him to do. Bear in mind that in elizabethan/jacobean times, Witches were believed to be plotting agaist the king (since the king was the representation of God on earth, and witches the loyal servants of the devil).
- What might be Shakespeare be applying to the witches' power?
It is shown that they don't actually have power, rather they know a lot of information and they use that information to manipulate people like Macbeth.
- Is he suggesting that Macbeth might be a victim of mysterious evil forces?
Defenitly, although he is guilty because he did everything he shouldn't, but still we can see that the witches manipulated him. They kindle the fire and Macbeth did the rest. So the fault is equally diveded, in my opinion.
